Ethio Quizzes

📚BIOLOGY COMMON QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following is NOT a function of the respiratory system?
(A) Gas exchange
(B) Regulation of body temperature
(C) Production of hormones
(D) Filtration of blood

2. The primary organ of gas exchange in the respiratory system is the:
(A) Lungs
(B) Heart
(C) Liver
(D) Kidneys

3. Which of the following structures is responsible for warming and moistening inhaled air?
(A) Nasal cavity
(B) Trachea
(C) Alveoli
(D) Pleura

4. The process of gas exchange in the lungs is known as:
(A) Diffusion
(B) Osmosis
(C) Filtration
(D) Active transport

5. Which of the following is a respiratory muscle that helps expand the chest cavity during inhalation?
(A) Diaphragm
(B) Intercostal muscles
(C) Abdominal muscles
(D) Both A and B

6. Which enzyme initiates the digestion of proteins in the stomach?
(A) Pepsin
(B) Amylase
(C) Lipase
(D) Maltase

7. The main function of the large intestine is to:
(A) Absorb nutrients
(B) Digest fats
(C) Absorb water
(D) Store bile

8. Which organ produces bile, a substance that aids in the digestion of fats?
(A) Liver
(B) Pancreas
(C) Gallbladder
(D) Small intestine

9. The process by which food is broken down into smaller molecules is called:
(A) Ingestion
(B) Digestion
(C) Absorption
(D) Elimination

10. Which of the following is NOT a type of digestive enzyme?
(A) Carbohydrase
(B) Protease
(C) Lipase
(D) Protease

11. The main function of the heart is to:
(A) Pump blood throughout the body
(B) Filter waste products from the blood
(C) Regulate body temperature
(D) Produce red blood cells

12. Which of the following blood vessels carries blood away from the heart?
(A) Arteries
(B) Veins
(C) Capillaries
(D) Lymph vessels

13. The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between blood and body cells occurs in the:
(A) Arteries
(B) Veins
(C) Capillaries
(D) Lymphatics

14. Which of the following is NOT a type of blood cell?
(A) Red blood cell
(B) White blood cell
(C) Thrombocyte
(D) Neutrophil

15. The function of platelets is to:
(A) Carry oxygen
(B) Fight infection
(C) Clot blood
(D) Regulate blood pressure

16. The main function of the kidneys is to:
(A) Filter waste products from the blood
(B) Regulate blood pressure
(C) Produce hormones
(D) Digest food

17. The filtering unit of the kidney is the:
(A) Nephron
(B) Glomerulus
(C) Bowman's capsule
(D) Renal pelvis

18. Which of the following substances is NOT filtered by the kidneys?
(A) Glucose
(B) Urea
(C) Creatinine
(D) Sodium

19. The kidneys help regulate blood pressure by:
(A) Releasing hormones
(B) Adjusting salt and water balance
(C) Controlling blood flow
(D) Both B and C

20. Which of the following is a common kidney disease?
(A) Renal failure
(B) Diabetes
(C) Hypertension
(D) All of the above

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ለመላው የክርስትና እምነት ተከታዮች እንኳን ለጌታችን ለመድኃኒታችን ለኢየሱስ ክርስቶስ የልደት በዓል በሰላም አደረሳችሁ !

መልካም በዓል ✨

Ethio Quizzes

🧿 Maths EUEE

በዚህ ፋይል ውስጥ 👇👇👇👇

✅ ለጥያቄዎቹ በቂ ማብራሪያ

✅ መጨረሻ ላይ ራሳችሁን ምታዩበት Quiz

✅ በቀላሉ ጥያቄውን ምትሰሩብት ዘዴዎች

✅ እዚህ ላይ ያሉትን ጥያቄዎች ከሰራችሁ በእርግጠኝነት Math ከ 90 በላይ ነው ምታመጡት

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#ለጥንቃቄ

በቴሌግራም መረጃዎች እየተመዘበሩ እንደሆነ የኢንፎርሜሽን መረብ ደህንነት አስተዳደር / ኢንሳ አሳውቋል።

ኢንሳ በዛሬው ዕለት በቴሌግራም መረጃዎች እየተመዘበሩ በመሆኑ ተጠቃሚዎች ተገቢውን ጥንቃቄ እንዲያደርጉ ሲል አሳስቧል።

ኢንሳ ብዙ የቴሌግራም አካውንቶች በተለያዩ ማስገሪያ (ፊሺንግ ሊንክ) አማካኝነት መረጃዎች እየተመዘበሩ እንደሆነ ገልጷል።

በመሆኑንም ከማንኛውም የቴሌግራም ተጠቃሚ (ከሚያውቁትም ሆነ ከማያውቁት) ግለሰብ ሊንክ ቢላክ መክፈት ተገቢ እንዳልሆነ እና ወዲያውኑ ማጥፋት እንደሚገባ አሳስቧል።

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🌎 Geography 100 question

🧮 population table questions

🌤 climate table questions

📒answer sheet provided

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📌 Chemistry Grade 12 more unit 1 and unit 2

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📌 እላዩላይ ያለው መልስ ሁሉም ልክ አይደለም በራሳቹ ሞክሩት። በተለይ Grade 9 unit 5 and 8 ,Grade 10 unit 6 , Grade 12 unit 1 and 2 በዉስጡ ይዟል

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የ2017 12ኛ ክፍል ፈተና የሚሰጥበት ቀን

🎯ከ ሰኔ 18 -28  መጀመሪያ ለማህበራዊ ሳይንስ በመቀጠል ደግሞ ለተፈጥሮ ሳይንስ ተፈታኞች በበይነ መረብ (Online) እና በዩኒቨርሲቲ ውስጥ በወረቀት ይሰጣል። በዘንድሮው አመት ከተፈታኞች ውስጥ ግማሽ
የሚሆኑትን በኦላይን ለመስጠት አቅም አለን ሲሉ የትምህርት ሚኒስትር ብርሀኑ ነጋ መናገራቸው ይታወሳል ።

🎯ስለሆነም ተፈታኞች እና የሚመለከታቸው ሁሉ ተገቢውን ዝግጅት እንዲያደርጉ እናሳስባለን ።

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📌 የ2016 የ 12ኛ ክፍል ፈተና 👏

☑️Subject :- Aptitude

🪞ሶሻል ተማሪዎች የተፈተኑት ፈተና ነው። ለናቹራል ተማሪዎች ስለሚጠቅማችሁ Practice አድርጉ✌️

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🕳 150 history questions

🗣Practice well and use your time

You can do it 🧡

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📄BIOLOGY Questions

1. Which of the following is an example of a simple carbohydrate?
a. Starch
b. Cellulose
c. Glucose
d. Glycogen

2. Which of the following is an example of a complex carbohydrate?
a. Glucose
b. Sucrose
c. Starch
d. Fructose

3. Which of the following vitamins is water-soluble?
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin E
d. Vitamin C

4. Which of the following minerals is important for bone health?
a. Iron
b. Calcium
c. Zinc
d. Selenium



5. Which of the following trace minerals is required for the synthesis of thyroid hormones?
a. Iron
b. Zinc
c. Iodine
d. Copper

6.  Which of the following is a condition that can occur due to a lack of carbohydrates in the diet?
a. Diabetes
b. Obesity
c. Anemia
d. Ketosis

7. Which of the following is a common symptom of iron deficiency?
a. Diarrhea
b. Anemia
c. Night blindness
d. Beriberi

8. An elderly man complains of poor night vision. Ophthalmic exam reveals corneal lesions and retinal hemorrhages. Which vitamin deficiency is most probable?
a) Thiamine
b) Niacin
c) Vitamin A
d) Vitamin C

9. What is the probability of having a child with cystic fibrosis if both parents are carriers of the gene but do not have the disease?
a. 0%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 75%

10. An older adult with a poor diet is diagnosed with megaloblastic anemia. Which vitamin deficiency is the most probable cause?
a) Folate
b) Vitamin B12
c) Vitamin C
d) Vitamin D

11. Which of the following is an example of a dominant genetic disorder?
a. Huntington's disease
b. Sickle cell anemia
c. Cystic fibrosis
d. Hemophilia

12. Which of the following is a bacterial disease that is typically spread through contaminated food or water?
a. Tuberculosis
b. Tetanus
c. Cholera
d. Malaria

13. Which of the following is a common method of controlling the growth of microorganisms in food?
a. Refrigeration
b. Exposure to sunlight
c. Adding sugar
d. Washing with soap and water

14. Which of the following is a recommended way to reduce the risk of heart disease?
a. Smoking cigarettes
b. Eating a high-fat diet
c. Regular exercise
d. Avoiding fruits and vegetables

15. A 4-year-old child is brought to the clinic with complaints of bone pain and difficulty walking. Physical examination reveals bowed legs and enlarged joints. Radiographic findings show abnormal bone growth. Which vitamin deficiency is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

A. Marasmus
B. Scurvy
C. Rickets
D. Kwashiorkor

Answers

1. c. Glucose - Glucose is a simple carbohydrate (monosaccharide).

2. c. Starch - Starch is a complex carbohydrate (polysaccharide).

3. d. Vitamin C - Vitamin C is a water-soluble vitamin.

4. b. Calcium - Calcium is important for bone health.

5. c. Iodine - Iodine is required for the synthesis of thyroid hormones.

6. d. Ketosis - Ketosis can occur due to a lack of carbohydrates in the diet.

7. b. Anemia - Anemia is a common symptom of iron deficiency.

8. c) Vitamin A - Poor night vision and corneal lesions suggest a vitamin A deficiency.

9. b. 25% - If both parents are carriers of the cystic fibrosis gene, there is a 25% chance their child will have the disease.

10. a) Folate or b) Vitamin B12 - Both deficiencies can cause megaloblastic anemia, but if forced to choose, b) Vitamin B12 is often more closely associated with this condition in older adults.

11. a. Huntington's disease - Huntington's disease is an example of a dominant genetic disorder.

12. c. Cholera - Cholera is a bacterial disease typically spread through contaminated food or water.

13. a. Refrigeration - Refrigeration is a common method of controlling the growth of microorganisms in food.

14. c. Regular exercise - Regular exercise is recommended to reduce the risk of heart disease.

15. C. Rickets - The symptoms described (bone pain, difficulty walking, bowed legs, and enlarged joints) are indicative of rickets, which is caused by vitamin D deficiency.

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📌 BIOLOGY common questions about photosynthesis

1. What is the primary function of the light-dependent reactions in photosynthesis?
a) Production of glucose
b) Generation of ATP and NADPH
c) Absorption of carbon dioxide
d) Release of oxygen

2. Where do the light-dependent reactions take place in a plant cell?
a) Stroma
b) Thylakoid membrane
c) Cytoplasm
d) Nucleus

3. Which molecule is split during the light-dependent reactions to release oxygen?
a) Water
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Glucose
d) ATP

4. What is the role of photosystem II in the light-dependent reactions?
a) Production of NADPH
b) Absorption of light energy
c) Splitting water molecules
d) Release of oxygen

5. Which molecule acts as an electron carrier in the light-dependent reactions?
a) NADP+
b) ATP
c) Glucose
d) Carbon dioxide

6. What is the primary product of the light-independent reactions (Calvin cycle)?
a) Oxygen
b) Glucose
c) ATP
d) NADPH

7. In which part of the chloroplast does the Calvin cycle occur?
a) Thylakoid membrane
b) Stroma
c) Grana
d) Cytoplasm

8. What is the role of rubisco in the Calvin cycle?
a) Capture of light energy
b) Fixation of carbon dioxide
c) Production of ATP
d) Release of oxygen

9. How many molecules of G3P (glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate) are produced in one turn of the Calvin cycle?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 6

10. What is the fate of most of the G3P molecules produced in the Calvin cycle?
a) Used to regenerate RuBP
b) Converted into glucose
c) Transferred to the light-dependent reactions
d) Released as waste products

11. Which molecule is responsible for providing the energy needed for the Calvin cycle?
a) ATP
b) NADPH
c) Water
d) Carbon dioxide

12. What is the role of the enzyme RuBisCO in the Calvin cycle?
a) Splitting water molecules
b) Regeneration of RuBP
c) Fixation of carbon dioxide
d) Production of glucose

13. During the light-independent reactions, what happens to the carbon atoms from carbon dioxide?
a) They are released as waste products
b) They are used to produce ATP
c) They are incorporated into organic molecules
d) They are converted into oxygen

14. Which molecule is regenerated at the end of the Calvin cycle to continue the process?
a) RuBP (ribulose bisphosphate)
b) G3P (glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate)
c) NADP+
d) ATP

15. What is the overall purpose of both the light-dependent and light-independent reactions in photosynthesis?
a) To produce oxygen for cellular respiration
b) To convert light energy into chemical energy (ATP and NADPH)
c) To release carbon dioxide into the atmosphere
d) To produce water as a byproduct

📍 Answer

1. b) Generation of ATP and NADPH

2. b) Thylakoid membrane

3.  a) Water

4. b) Absorption of light energy (and also c) Splitting water molecules)

5.  a) NADP+

6. b) Glucose

7.  b) Stroma

8.  b) Fixation of carbon dioxide

9.  a) 1 (Note: Two G3P molecules are needed to form one glucose, but one turn produces one G3P.)

10. a) Used to regenerate RuBP

11.  a) ATP (NADPH provides reducing power, but ATP provides energy.)

12.  c) Fixation of carbon dioxide

13. c) They are incorporated into organic molecules

14. a) RuBP (ribulose bisphosphate)

15.  b) To convert light energy into chemical energy (ATP and NADPH)

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Which type of bond links amino acids together in a polypeptide chain?
  a) Glycosidic bond
  b) Phosphodiester bond
  c) Peptide bond
  d) Hydrogen bond

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Asteyayet kalachu negerun selehulum 🙏

📌 Questions on microscope

1. What part of the microscope is responsible for magnifying the image of the specimen?
a) Eyepiece
b) Objective lens
c) Condenser
d) Stage

2. Which part of the microscope is used to adjust the focus of the image?
a) Revolving nosepiece
b) Coarse adjustment knob
c) Fine adjustment knob
d) Arm

3. What part of the microscope supports the slide holding the specimen?
a) Diaphragm
b) Stage
c) Base
d) Eyepiece

4. Which component of the microscope is responsible for controlling the amount of light passing through the specimen?
a) Diaphragm
b) Objective lens
c) Condenser
d) Arm

5. What is the purpose of the revolving nosepiece on a microscope?
a) To hold the eyepiece
b) To adjust the magnification
c) To hold the objective lenses
d) To focus the image

6. Which part of the microscope connects the head to the base and provides support?
a) Stage
b) Arm
c) Condenser
d) Coarse adjustment knob

7. What part of the microscope moves the stage up and down for focusing?
a) Diaphragm
b) Revolving nosepiece
c) Coarse adjustment knob
d) Fine adjustment knob

8. Where is the light source typically located in a compound microscope?
a) In the eyepiece
b) Under the stage
c) Attached to the objective lens
d) In the revolving nosepiece

9. Which part of the microscope holds the slide in place on the stage?
a) Condenser
b) Stage clips
c) Base
d) Eyepiece

10. What is the function of the condenser in a microscope?
a) To adjust the focus
b) To control the amount of light
c) To hold the objective lenses
d) To support the slide

11. What type of microscope is commonly used for observing live biological specimens?
   a) Light microscope
   b) Electron microscope
   c) Scanning probe microscope

12. What is the primary function of the objective lens in a microscope?
   a) To adjust the focus
   b) To magnify the specimen
   c) To provide illumination

13. Which microscopy technique involves labeling molecules with fluorescent dyes?
   a) Fluorescence microscopy
   b) Electron microscopy
   c) Phase-contrast microscopy

14. What is the maximum magnification achievable with a typical light microscope?
   a) 1000x
   b) 2000x
   c) 5000x

15. Which component of an electron microscope focuses the electron beam onto the specimen?
   a) Condenser
   b) Objective lens
   c) Electron gun

16. In which microscopy technique are electrons passed through a thin specimen to produce an image?
   a) Transmission electron microscopy
   b) Scanning electron microscopy
   c) Atomic force microscopy

17. Which microscopy technique is best for visualizing surface topography?
   a) Scanning electron microscopy
   b) Phase-contrast microscopy
   c) Confocal microscopy

18. What is a key advantage of scanning probe microscopy?
   a) High magnification
   b) Real-time imaging
   c) Three-dimensional imaging

19. Which microscopy technique is used to investigate atomic structures?
   a) Electron microscopy
   b) Scanning probe microscopy
   c) X-ray microscopy

20. Which microscopy technique relies on electron beam interaction with sample atoms?
    a) Scanning electron microscopy
    b) Transmission electron microscopy
    c) Confocal microscopy

Comment your Answers

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📌 Comment your Answers

GEOGRAPHY EUEE 2015

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📚 English Vocabulary Test for Grade 9-12

💡Entrance ላይ ለ SAT እና English ጥያቄዎች Vocabulary Part ስታገኙ መድፈን የሚያስችላችሁ

📚Practical Questions with perfect answers

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📌 2009 EUEE  related with tense.
_

#1) None of the furniture we   bought last week___  yet.
A) has arrived
B) arrived
C) have arrived
D) will have arrived

#2) Classes begin only after you-------- registration.
A) Completed
B) Complete
C) Will complete
D) Had complete

#3)Next week this time, I------------all my examinations.
A) am finishing
B) have finished
C) will finish
D) will have finished.

#4) I am sure you___ a good time staying here with me this coming summer.
A) will have
B) should have
C) have
D) will be having

#5) Did you know that Mary and Bedlu___ married next week?
A) are going to get
B) will be getting
C) will get
D) get

#6) I am not good at Mathematics, but I __ any problem with my English.

A) had never have
B) have never had
C) never have
D) had never had

#7) I was very sad to hear that your mother _.
A) has died
B) had died
C) dies
D) would die

#8) I have now been admitted to the university of Mello and I am expected to be there in August.The semester__ half way there by the time the academic year begins here.
A) will be
B) would be
C) will have been
D) would have been

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📌 Math Conic section quetions

1. What is the general form of the equation of a circle in the coordinate plane?
   a) \( y = mx + c \)
   b) \( ax^2 + by^2 = c \)
   c) \( (x - h)^2 + (y - k)^2 = r^2 \)
   d) \( y = ax^2 + bx + c \)

2. Which conic section can be represented by the equation \( x^2/a^2 + y^2/b^2 = 1 \)?
   a) Circle
   b) Ellipse
   c) Hyperbola
   d) Parabola

3. What are the foci of an ellipse located on the x-axis with equation \( x^2/9 + y^2/4 = 1 \)?
   a) (3, 0) and (-3, 0)
   b) (0, 3) and (0, -3)
   c) (2, 0) and (-2, 0)
   d) (0, 2) and (0, -2)

4. The equation of a parabola opening to the right with a focus at (3, 0) and directrix x = -3 is:
   a) \( y = x^2 + 4 \)
   b) \( y = (x-3)^2 + 4 \)
   c) \( x = (y-3)^2 + 4 \)
   d) \( x = (y+3)^2 - 4 \)

5. What is the eccentricity of a hyperbola with vertices located at (-5, 0) and (5, 0) and foci at (-7, 0) and (7, 0)?
   a) 0
   b) 1
   c) 2
   d) 0.5

Comment your answers

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📌 Biology multiple choice questions with answers on enzymes

1. Which of the following factors can lead to the denaturation of an enzyme ?
   A) Extreme pH levels 
   B) High temperatures 
   C) High salt concentrations 
   D) All of the above 

Answer: D) All of the above

2. Which of the following factors does NOT affect enzyme activity?
   A) Temperature 
   B) pH 
   C) Concentration of substrate 
   D) Color of the enzyme 

Answer: D) Color of the enzyme

3. What is the term for the specific region on an enzyme where the substrate binds?
   A) Active site 
   B) Allosteric site 
   C) Substrate site 
   D) Binding site 

Answer: A) Active site 

4. Enzymes are highly specific. This means that:
   A) They can catalyze any reaction. 
   B) They can only catalyze reactions involving specific substrates. 
   C) They can only function at high temperatures. 
   D) They are not affected by inhibitors. 

Answer: B) They can only catalyze reactions involving specific substrates. 

5. What is the effect of increasing temperature on enzyme activity, up to a certain point?
   A) Enzyme activity decreases steadily. 
   B) Enzyme activity increases. 
   C) Enzyme activity remains constant. 
   D) Enzyme activity becomes irreversible. 

Answer: B) Enzyme activity increases. 

6. Which of the following statements about enzyme inhibitors is TRUE?
   A) They increase the rate of enzyme activity. 
   B) They bind to the active site and prevent substrate binding. 
   C) They are always permanent. 
   D) They have no effect on the enzyme function. 

Answer: B) They bind to the active site and prevent substrate binding.

7. What type of enzyme inhibitor binds to the active site of an enzyme?
   A) Competitive inhibitor
   B) Non-competitive inhibitor 
   C) Allosteric inhibitor 
   D) Feedback inhibitor 

Answer: A) Competitive inhibitor

8. What is the role of coenzymes in enzymatic reactions?
   A) They provide structural support to enzymes. 
   B) They act as substrates for enzymes. 
   C) They assist in enzyme activity by donating or accepting electrons or functional groups. 
   D) They inhibit enzyme activity. 

Answer: C) They assist in enzyme activity by donating or accepting electrons or functional groups

9. Which of the following best describes the function of enzymes in biological systems?
   A) They provide energy for cellular processes. 
   B) They speed up chemical reactions by lowering the activation energy. 
   C) They serve as structural components of cells. 
   D) They transport substances across cell membranes.

Answer: B) They speed up chemical reactions by lowering the activation energy.
  
10. What happens to an enzyme after it catalyzes a reaction?
   A) It is permanently altered and cannot be reused. 
   B) It is consumed in the reaction. 
   C) It is released unchanged and can be used again. 
   D) It becomes inactive and must be degraded.

Answer: C) It is released unchanged and can be used again.

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#Chemistry

#onAcid-Base Equilibrium

1. Which of the following statements best describes a Bronsted-Lowry acid?
   - A) A substance that donates a pair of electrons. 
   - B) A substance that donates a proton (H+). 
   - C) A substance that accepts a proton (H+). 
   - D) A substance that dissociates completely in water. 

   Answer: B) A substance that donates a proton (H+)

   Explanation: In the Bronsted-Lowry theory, an acid is defined as a proton donor, while a base is a proton acceptor.

---

2. If a solution has a pH of 3, it is considered:
   - A) Neutral 
   - B) Slightly acidic 
   - C) Highly acidic 
   - D) Basic 

   Answer: C) Highly acidic

   Explanation: The pH scale ranges from 0 to 14, with values below 7 considered acidic. A pH of 3 indicates a strongly acidic solution.

---

   3. What is the pH of a solution if the concentration of H+ ions is 1 x 10^-5 M?
   - A) 5 
   - B) 7 
   - C) 9 
   - D) 12 

   Answer: A) 5

   Explanation: pH is calculated using the formula pH = -log[H+]. With an H+ concentration of 1 x 10^-5 M, the pH is 5.

---

4. In the reaction NH₃ + H₂O ⇌ NH₄⁺ + OH⁻, which species acts as the Bronsted-Lowry base?
   - A) NH₃ 
   - B) H₂O 
   - C) NH₄⁺ 
   - D) OH⁻ 

   Answer: A) NH₃

   Explanation: In this reaction, NH₃ accepts a proton (H+) from H₂O, acting as a Bronsted-Lowry base.

---

   5. Which of the following solutions would be considered a buffer?
   - A) HCl and NaCl 
   - B) CH₃COOH and CH₃COONa 
   - C) NaOH and NaCl 
   - D) H₂SO₄ and HCl 

   Answer: B) CH₃COOH and CH₃COONa

   Explanation: A buffer solution consists of a weak acid and its conjugate base (or a weak base and its conjugate acid). Acetic acid (CH₃COOH) and sodium acetate (CH₃COONa) form a buffer.

---

6. If the pKa of acetic acid is 4.76, at what pH is the concentration of acetic acid equal to the concentration of acetate ion?
   - A) 3.76 
   - B) 4.76 
   - C) 5.76 
   - D) 7.00 

   Answer: B) 4.76

   Explanation: According to the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation, pH = pKa when the concentrations of the acid and its conjugate base are equal.

---

   7. Which of the following is the conjugate base of H₂CO₃?
   - A) HCO₃⁻ 
   - B) CO₃²⁻ 
   - C) OH⁻ 
   - D) H₂O 

   Answer: A) HCO₃⁻

   Explanation: When H₂CO₃ (carbonic acid) loses one proton (H+), it forms HCO₃⁻ (bicarbonate), which is its conjugate base.

---

8. What happens to the pH of a buffer solution if a small amount of a strong acid is added?
   - A) pH increases 
   - B) pH decreases significantly 
   - C) pH remains nearly constant 
   - D) pH becomes neutral (7) 

   Answer: C) pH remains nearly constant

   Explanation: Buffers resist changes in pH, so the pH of the solution remains relatively stable even if a small amount of strong acid is added.

---

9. Which of the following pairs could act as a buffer in aqueous solution?
   - A) HCl and Cl⁻ 
   - B) NaOH and NaCl 
   - C) H₂CO₃ and NaHCO₃ 
   - D) HNO₃ and NO₃⁻ 

   Answer: C) H₂CO₃ and NaHCO₃

   Explanation: Carbonic acid (H₂CO₃) and bicarbonate (NaHCO₃) form a buffer system, often found in natural systems like blood.

---

10. Which of the following best explains why the pH of pure water is 7 at 25°C?
   - A) Water is a neutral substance with equal concentrations of H+ and OH- ions. 
   - B) Water does not ionize at all. 
   - C) Water is only slightly acidic at room temperature. 
   - D) The pH scale is based on water’s natural acidity. 

   Answer: A) Water is a neutral substance with equal concentrations of H+ and OH- ions.

   Explanation: At 25°C, pure water has equal concentrations of H+ and OH- ions (1 x 10^-7 M), resulting in a neutral pH of 7.

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Grade 12 English Entrance Questions on 4 Topics:

===For G-12 Students======
☞ All Tenses
☞ Adverbial Clauses of Time
☞ Subject Verb Agreement
☞ Active and Passive Voices
60 Questions (2016EC and other old Entrance Questions)!
Collected, organized and compiled by Million Abebe (Masters in English and B. Ed. Degree in Pedagogy)

Attention Please: For Grade 12!
=====
☞ Dear students, practice all the questions on this worksheet, and check your understanding on these 4 areas!
☞ How many percent are you able to answer?
If it is below 70%, please, re-read these areas!

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📘HISTORY common questions about the Battle of Adwa

Instructions: Choose the best answer for each question.

1. When did the Battle of Adwa take place?
a) 1895
b) 1896
c) 1897
d) 1898

Answer: b) 1896

2. Which two countries fought in the Battle of Adwa?
a) Ethiopia and France
b) Ethiopia and Britain
c) Ethiopia and Italy
d) Ethiopia and Egypt

Answer: c) Ethiopia and Italy

3. What was the primary reason for the Italian invasion of Ethiopia?
a) To spread Christianity
b) To establish a colonial empire
c) To help Ethiopia fight against the Mahdists
d) To secure access to the Red Sea

Answer: b) To establish a colonial empire

4. Who was the Ethiopian Emperor during the Battle of Adwa?
a) Tewodros II
b) Yohannes IV
c) Menelik II
d) Haile Selassie I

Answer: c) Menelik II

5. What was the name of the Ethiopian general who led the army at Adwa?
a) Ras Makonnen
b) Ras Alula
c) Dejazmach Tessema
d) Wagshum Gobena

Answer: b) Ras Alula

6. Which European country provided military assistance to Ethiopia during the war against Italy?
a) France
b) Russia
c) Germany
d) None of the above

Answer: d) None of the above

7. Which weapon played a crucial role in the Ethiopian victory at Adwa?
a) Artillery
b) Machine guns
c) Rifles
d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

8. What was the main tactic used by the Ethiopians in the Battle of Adwa?
a) Frontal assault
b) Guerilla warfare
c) Naval blockade
d) Air raids

Answer: b) Guerilla warfare

9. How many Italian soldiers were killed at the Battle of Adwa?
a) Less than 100
b) Around 500
c) Over 7,000
d) More than 10,000

Answer: c) Over 7,000

10. What was the significance of the Ethiopian victory at Adwa?
a) It ended Italian colonization of Ethiopia
b) It helped to inspire other African nations to fight for independence
c) It showed that Africa could resist European imperialism
d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

11. How did the Battle of Adwa impact the relationship between Ethiopia and Europe?
a) It strengthened relations between Ethiopia and European powers
b) It strained relations between Ethiopia and European powers
c) It had no significant impact on relations
d) It led to a series of diplomatic agreements

Answer: b) It strained relations between Ethiopia and European powers

12. The Battle of Adwa is considered a turning point in African history because:
a) It was the first time an African nation defeated a European power
b) It marked the end of colonialism in Africa
c) It inspired the Pan-African movement
d) It led to the creation of the African Union

Answer: a) It was the first time an African nation defeated a European power

13. What was the name of the treaty that officially ended the Italo-Ethiopian War?
a) The Treaty of Addis Ababa
b) The Treaty of Rome
c) The Treaty of Versailles
d) The Treaty of Paris

Answer: a) The Treaty of Addis Ababa

14. What legacy did the Battle of Adwa leave for Ethiopia?
a) A sense of national pride and unity
b) A reputation as a strong and independent nation
c) A lasting symbol of resistance to colonialism
d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

15. How is the Battle of Adwa celebrated in Ethiopia today?
a) It is a national holiday
b) There are monuments and museums commemorating the victory
c) It is a symbol of national pride
d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

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📌 Physics questions

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📌 Biology questions topics in biology and technology :


1. Which of the following is the basic unit of life?
   A) Atom 
   B) Molecule 
   C) Cell 
   D) Tissue 

2. What is CRISPR primarily used for in biotechnology?
   A) Protein synthesis 
   B) Gene editing 
   C) Cell division 
   D) DNA replication 

3. Which organelle is known as the powerhouse of the cell?
   A) Nucleus 
   B) Ribosome 
   C) Mitochondria 
   D) Golgi apparatus 

4. What type of bond holds the two strands of a DNA double helix together?
   A) Ionic bond 
   B) Hydrogen bond 
   C) Covalent bond 
   D) Metallic bond 

5. Which of the following technologies is used for sequencing DNA?
   A) PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) 
   B) Gel electrophoresis 
   C) Sanger sequencing 
   D) All of the above 

6. What is the primary function of ribosomes in a cell?
   A) Energy production 
   B) Protein synthesis 
   C) DNA replication 
   D) Lipid storage 

7. In genetic engineering, what does the term "transgenic" refer to?
   A) An organism with modified RNA 
   B) An organism that has been modified to contain genes from another species 
   C) An organism that has undergone mutation 
   D) An organism that is bred for specific traits 

8. Which of the following is a common application of biotechnology in agriculture?
   A) Antibiotic production 
   B) Genetic modification of crops for pest resistance 
   C) Fermentation processes for food production 
   D) All of the above 

9. What is the role of polymerase in PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
   A) To separate DNA strands 
   B) To synthesize new DNA strands 
   C) To amplify RNA strands 
   D) To degrade DNA strands 

10. Which of the following best describes bioinformatics?
    A) The study of living organisms in their natural environment 
    B) The application of computer technology to manage biological data 
    C) The process of creating synthetic organisms 
    D) The use of biological techniques in industrial processes 

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📌 SOCIAL  STUDENT

📖 Challenging  questions focused on climate geography, suitable for an EGSECE exam format;


1. Which of the following climates is characterized by very low precipitation and extreme temperature variations between day and night?

   • A) Tropical Rainforest

   • B) Desert

   • C) Mediterranean

   • D) Tundra

2. What is the primary driver of ocean currents that influence global climate patterns?

   • A) Wind patterns

   • B) Salinity differences

   • C) Earth's rotation

   • D) Solar radiation

3. Which climate zone is characterized by permanent ice and tundra vegetation?

   • A) Polar Climate

   • B) Humid Continental

   • C) Subtropical

   • D) Marine West Coast

4. The Köppen climate classification system divides climates into how many main categories?

   • A) 4

   • B) 5

   • C) 6

   • D) 7

5. Which of the following factors does NOT significantly influence a region's climate?

   • A) Latitude

   • B) Altitude

   • C) Population density

   • D) Proximity to water bodies

6. What type of climate is typically found in the Mediterranean region, characterized by hot, dry summers and mild, wet winters?

   • A) Csa

   • B) BSh

   • C) Dfb

   • D) Af

7. Which phenomenon refers to the periodic warming of ocean surface temperatures in the central and eastern Pacific Ocean, affecting global weather patterns?

   • A) La Niña

   • B) El Niño

   • C) Monsoon

   • D) Typhoon

8. What is the term for the gradual increase in Earth's average surface temperature due to human activities, primarily fossil fuel combustion?

   • A) Climate Adaptation

   • B) Global Warming

   • C) Urban Heat Island Effect

   • D) Ozone Depletion

9. Which region is most likely to experience a monsoon climate?

   • A) Northern Europe

   • B) Southeast Asia

   • C) Arctic Circle

   • D) Central Australia

10. The concept of "climate feedback loops" is best described as:

    • A) Changes in climate due to human intervention

    • B) Processes that amplify or dampen climate change effects

    • C) Weather patterns that repeat annually

    • D) Seasonal variations in temperature


Answers are in the comment

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10 multiple-choice questions related to chemistry

1,What is the atomic number of carbon?
A) 6 
B) 12 
C) 14 
D) 16 

2,Which of the following is a noble gas?
A) Oxygen 
B) Nitrogen 
C) Argon 
D) Hydrogen 

3,What type of bond involves the sharing of electron pairs between atoms?
A) Ionic bond 
B) Covalent bond 
C) Metallic bond 
D) Hydrogen bond 

4,Which of the following represents a strong acid?
A) HCl 
B) CH₃COOH 
C) NH₃ 
D) H₂CO₃ 

5,What is the pH of a neutral solution at 25°C?
A) 0 
B) 7 
C) 14 
D) 10 

6,Which of the following elements is a transition metal?
A) Sodium 
B) Calcium 
C) Iron 
D) Aluminum 

7,What is the molar mass of water (H₂O)?
A) 16 g/mol 
B) 18 g/mol 
C) 20 g/mol 
D) 22 g/mol 

8,Which of the following reactions is an example of a combustion reaction?
A) H₂ + O₂ → H₂O 
B) C₃H₈ + O₂ → CO₂ + H₂O 
C) Na + Cl₂ → NaCl 
D) CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂ 

9,What is the primary intermolecular force in hydrogen fluoride (HF)?
A) London dispersion forces 
B) Dipole-dipole interactions 
C) Hydrogen bonding 
D) Ionic bonding 

10, Which of the following compounds is an example of a salt?
A) NaCl 
B) H₂O 
C) CH₄ 
D) C₆H₁₂O₆ 

Answer  comment

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📌 Math Grade 12 

Multiple Choice Questions Collected from Unit 1

1) Which of the following best describes a sequence? 
A) A group of numbers arranged in a specific order 
B) A set of random numbers 
C) Numbers that are not related to each other 
D) A sequence is not a mathematical concept 

Answer: A 
Explanation: A sequence is a list of numbers arranged in a specific order, where each number is related to the others by a defined rule.

---

2) What is the common difference in the arithmetic sequence: 3, 7, 11, 15, ...? 
A) 2 
B) 3 
C) 4 
D) 5 

Answer: A 
Explanation: The common difference is found by subtracting any term from the next term (7 - 3 = 4).

---

3) In a geometric sequence, if the first term is 2 and the common ratio is 3, what is the second term? 
A) 6 
B) 8 
C) 9 
D) 11 

Answer: A 
Explanation: The second term is found by multiplying the first term by the common ratio (2 × 3 = 6).

---

4) What does the sigma notation represent in mathematics? 
A) The sum of a sequence 
B) The product of a sequence 
C) The average of a sequence 
D) The difference of a sequence 

Answer: A 
Explanation: Sigma notation (Σ) is used to denote the sum of a sequence of numbers.

---

5) What is the sum of the first 5 terms of the arithmetic sequence: 2, 5, 8, 11, ...? 
A) 30 
B) 33 
C) 35 
D) 40 

Answer: B 
Explanation: The first five terms are 2, 5, 8, 11, and 14. Their sum is 2 + 5 + 8 + 11 + 14 = 40.

---

6) Which type of series does not have a finite sum? 
A) Arithmetic series 
B) Geometric series 
C) Infinite series 
D) Convergent series 

Answer: C 
Explanation: Infinite series can continue indefinitely and may not converge to a finite sum.

---

7) An arithmetic progression has a first term of 4 and a common difference of 3. What is the 10th term? 
A) 31 
B) 30 
C) 34 
D) 33 

Answer: A 
Explanation: The formula for the nth term is aₙ = a₁ + (n - 1)d. Thus, a₁₀ = 4 + (10 - 1) ⋅ 3 = 31.

---

8) In a geometric sequence, if the first term is 5 and the common ratio is 2, what is the fourth term? 
A) 10 
B) 15 
C) 20 
D) 25 

Answer: C 
Explanation: The fourth term can be calculated as a₄ = a₁ ⋅ rⁿ⁻¹ = 5 ⋅ 2³ = 40.

---

9) What is the formula to find the nth term of an arithmetic sequence? 
A) aₙ = a₁ + (n - 1)d 
B) aₙ = a₁ × rⁿ⁻¹ 
C) aₙ = a₁ + rd 
D) aₙ = a₁ ÷ rⁿ⁻¹ 

Answer: A 
Explanation: The formula for finding the nth term in an arithmetic sequence is aₙ = a₁ + (n - 1)d.

---

10) Which of the following is an example of an arithmetic sequence? 
A) 2, 4, 8, 16, ... 
B) 3, 6, 9, 12, 15 ... 
C) 1, 3, 9, 27, ... 
D) 5, 10, 20, 40, ... 

Answer: B 

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📌 Math Grade 12 

Multiple Choice Questions Collected from Unit 1

1) Which of the following best describes a sequence? 
A) A group of numbers arranged in a specific order 
B) A set of random numbers 
C) Numbers that are not related to each other 
D) A sequence is not a mathematical concept 

Answer: A 
Explanation: A sequence is a list of numbers arranged in a specific order, where each number is related to the others by a defined rule.

---

2) What is the common difference in the arithmetic sequence: 3, 7, 11, 15, ...? 
A) 2 
B) 3 
C) 4 
D) 5 

Answer: A 
Explanation: The common difference is found by subtracting any term from the next term (7 - 3 = 4).

---

3) In a geometric sequence, if the first term is 2 and the common ratio is 3, what is the second term? 
A) 6 
B) 8 
C) 9 
D) 11 

Answer: A 
Explanation: The second term is found by multiplying the first term by the common ratio (2 × 3 = 6).

---

4) What does the sigma notation represent in mathematics? 
A) The sum of a sequence 
B) The product of a sequence 
C) The average of a sequence 
D) The difference of a sequence 

Answer: A 
Explanation: Sigma notation (Σ) is used to denote the sum of a sequence of numbers.

---

5) What is the sum of the first 5 terms of the arithmetic sequence: 2, 5, 8, 11, ...? 
A) 30 
B) 33 
C) 35 
D) 40 

Answer: B 
Explanation: The first five terms are 2, 5, 8, 11, and 14. Their sum is 2 + 5 + 8 + 11 + 14 = 40.

---

6) Which type of series does not have a finite sum? 
A) Arithmetic series 
B) Geometric series 
C) Infinite series 
D) Convergent series 

Answer: C 
Explanation: Infinite series can continue indefinitely and may not converge to a finite sum.

---

7) An arithmetic progression has a first term of 4 and a common difference of 3. What is the 10th term? 
A) 31 
B) 30 
C) 34 
D) 33 

Answer: A 
Explanation: The formula for the nth term is aₙ = a₁ + (n - 1)d. Thus, a₁₀ = 4 + (10 - 1) ⋅ 3 = 31.

---

8) In a geometric sequence, if the first term is 5 and the common ratio is 2, what is the fourth term? 
A) 10 
B) 15 
C) 20 
D) 25 

Answer: C 
Explanation: The fourth term can be calculated as a₄ = a₁ ⋅ rⁿ⁻¹ = 5 ⋅ 2³ = 40.

---

9) What is the formula to find the nth term of an arithmetic sequence? 
A) aₙ = a₁ + (n - 1)d 
B) aₙ = a₁ × rⁿ⁻¹ 
C) aₙ = a₁ + rd 
D) aₙ = a₁ ÷ rⁿ⁻¹ 

Answer: A 
Explanation: The formula for finding the nth term in an arithmetic sequence is aₙ = a₁ + (n - 1)d.

---

10) Which of the following is an example of an arithmetic sequence? 
A) 2, 4, 8, 16, ... 
B) 3, 6, 9, 12, 15 ... 
C) 1, 3, 9, 27, ... 
D) 5, 10, 20, 40, ... 

Answer: B 

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📚 Chemistry Grade 12

✅ 80 Question

📍Model Exam

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📚 Questions from EUEE and Grade 10 matric /2000- 2015/

1,What is the largest subatomic particles?

2,Ions are

A. atoms of an element that have different numbers of protons
B. atoms of an element that have different numbers of neutrons
C.atoms that have a charge

2.What particles are found in the nucleus of an atom?

A. protons and neutrons
B.protons and electrons
C.neutrons and electrons

3,Which subatomic particle has the smallest mass?
A.proton
B,neutron
C,electron

4.Which subatomic particle has a charge of zero?
A,proton
B,neutron
C,electron

5,Which subatomic particle has a charge of +1?
A,proton
B,neutron
C,electron

6,Which section of an atom has the highest density?
A,electron cloud
B,nucleus
C,all sections have the same density

7,The atomic number tells the
A,number of electrons in the atom
B,number of protons in the atom
C,number of neutrons in the atom

8,The number of protons and neutrons in a nucleus is the
A,atomic mass
B,atomic number
C,mass number


9,Nucleons are
A,electrons and protons
B,electrons and neutrons
C,protons and neutrons


10,Where are the electrons in an atom located?
A,nucleus
B,atomic orbitals
C,corona of the nucleus

11,. According to Dalton’s Atomic Theory, matter consists of indivisible ___
a) Molecules
b) Atoms
c) Ions
d) Mixtures

12,Atoms of different elements differ in mass.
a) True
b) False

13,What did Dalton’s Theory couldn’t explain?
a) gaseous volumes
b) conservation of mass
c) chemical philosophy
d) indivisible atoms

14,What is the name of Dalton’s publication?
a) A New system of atomic Philosophy
b) An old system of Chemical Philosophy
c) A New System of Chemical Philosophy
d) A New System of Chemical Prophecy

15,Which of the following may not be explained by Dalton’s atomic theory?
a) reason for combining atoms
b) conservation of mass
c) chemical philosophy
d) indivisible atoms

16,Law of conservation of mass isn’t explained in Dalton’s atomic theory.
a) True
b) False

17,All atoms of a given element have identical including identical __
a) Properties, mass
b) Weight, volume
c) Volume, properties
d) Temperature, pressure

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