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Whoever abets the commission of an offence punishable with death or imprisonment for life, shall, if any act for which the abettor is liable in consequence of the abetment, and which causes hurt to any person, is done, the abettor shall be liable to imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ________ years, and shall also be liable to fine.

a. Two

b. Seven

c. Ten

d. Fourteen

Whoever abets the commission of an offence punishable with death or imprisonment for life, shall, if that offence be not committed in consequence of the abetment, and no express provision is made under this Sanhita for the punishment of such abetment, be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to _____ years, and shall also be liable to fine.

a. Two

b. Seven

c. Ten

d. Fourteen

A instigates B to cause grievous hurt to Z. B, in consequence of the instigation, causes grievous hurt to Z. Z dies in consequence.

a. Here, if A knew that the grievous hurt abetted was likely to cause death, A is liable to be punished with the punishment provided for murder

b. Here, if A do not knew that the grievous hurt abetted was likely to cause death, A is liable to be punished with the punishment provided for murder

c. Here, irrespective of whether A knew that the grievous hurt abetted was likely to cause death or not, A is liable to be punished with the punishment provided for murder

d. None of the above

A instigates B and C to break into an inhabited house at midnight for the purpose of robbery, and provides them with arms for that purpose. B and C break into the house, and being resisted by Z, one of the inmates, murder Z.

a. Here, if that murder was the probable consequence of the abetment, A is liable to the punishment provided for murder

b. Here, if that murder was not the probable consequence of the abetment, A is liable to the punishment provided for murder

c. Here, irrespective of whether murder was the probable consequence of the abetment or not, A is liable to the punishment provided for murder

d. None of the above

Chhattisgarh Judiciary Prelims Syllabus

http://youtube.com/c/LAWEXPLORER

🔷 No. of Question – 100
🔷 Time - 2:00 Hour
🔷 Marks – 100

🟣 The Preliminary Examination shall be of the duration of two hours consisting of 100 objective type questions from the following:-

1. Constitution of India
2. Code of Civil Procedure
3. The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
4. The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
5. The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023
6. Contract Act
7. Transfer of Property Act
8. Specific Relief Act
9. The Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881
10. Limitation Act
11. Registration Act
12. Court Fees Act
13. The Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011
14. Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code
15. The Chhattisgarh Excise Act, 1915
16. General Knowledge of Chhattisgarh

https://youtu.be/ZSD_GVNAo8g?si=9seWoqrxGZ5rfR4b

Choose the incorrect option.

a. It is necessary that the person abetted should be capable by law of committing an offence

b. It is necessary that the person abetted should have the same guilty intention or knowledge as that of the abettor

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. None of the above

Choose the correct option.

a. It is not necessary that the person abetted should be capable by law of committing an offence

b. It is not necessary that the person abetted should have the same guilty intention or knowledge as that of the abettor

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. None of the above

Choose the correct option.

a. It is necessary that the person abetted should be capable by law of committing an offence

b. It is necessary that the person abetted should have the same guilty intention or knowledge as that of the abettor

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. None of the above

https://youtu.be/_B1vqpY5F6k

A person abets the doing of a thing, who —

a. Instigates any person to do that thing

b. Engages with one or more other person or persons in any conspiracy for the doing of that thing, if an act or illegal omission takes place in pursuance of that conspiracy, and in order to the doing of that thing

c. Intentionally aids, by any act or illegal omission, the doing of that thing

d. All of the above

A is attacked by a mob who attempt to murder him. He cannot effectually exercise his right of private defence without firing on the mob, and he cannot fire without risk of harming young children who are mingled with the mob. If by so firing he harms any of the children –

a. A committed an offence of committing grivious hurt

b. A committed an offence of culpable homicide amounting to murder

c. A committed an offence of culpable homicide not amounting to murder

d. A commits no offence

Commencement and continuance of right of private defence of property –

a. Against criminal trespass or mischief continues as long as the offender continues in the commission of criminal trespass or mischief

b. Against house-breaking after sunset and before sunrise continues as long as the house-trespass which has been begun by such house-breaking continues

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. None of the above

Commencement and continuance of right of private defence of property –

a. Commences when a reasonable apprehension of danger to the property commences

b. Against theft continues till the offender has effected his retreat with the property or either the assistance of the public authorities is obtained, or the property has been recovered

c. Against robbery continues as long as the offender causes or attempts to cause to any person death or hurt or wrongful restraint or as long as the fear of instant death or of instant hurt or of instant personal restraint continues

d. All of the above

When right of private defence of property extends to causing death –

a. Robbery

b. House-breaking after sunset and before sunrise

c. Mischief by fire or any explosive substance committed on any building, tent or vessel, which building, tent or vessel is used as a human dwelling, or as a place for the custody of property

d. All of the above

The right of private defence of the body continues –

a. As soon as a reasonable apprehension of danger to the body arises from an attempt or threat to commit the offence though the offence may not have been committed

b. As long as such apprehension of danger to the body continues

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. None of the above

The right of private defence of the body commences –

a. As soon as a reasonable apprehension of danger to the body arises from an attempt or threat to commit the offence though the offence may not have been committed

b. As long as such apprehension of danger to the body continues

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. None of the above

When right of private defence of body extends to causing death –

a. An assault with the intention of wrongfully confining a person, under circumstances which may reasonably cause him to apprehend that he will be unable to have recourse to the public authorities for his release

b. An act of throwing or administering acid or an attempt to throw or administer acid which may reasonably cause the apprehension that grievous hurt will otherwise be the consequence of such act

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. None of the above

When right of private defence of body extends to causing death –

a. Such an assault as may reasonably cause the apprehension that death will otherwise be the consequence of such assault

b. such an assault as may reasonably cause the apprehension that grievous hurt will otherwise be the consequence of such assault

c. An assault with the intention of committing rape

d. All of the above

There is no right of private defence –

a. Against an act which does not reasonably cause the apprehension of death or of grievous hurt, if done, or attempted to be done, by a public servant acting in good faith under colour of his office, though that act, may not be strictly justifiable by law

b. Against an act which does not reasonably cause the apprehension of death or of grievous hurt, if done, or attempted to be done, by the direction of a public servant acting in good faith under colour of his office, though that direction may not be strictly justifiable by law

c. In cases in which there is time to have recourse to the protection of the public authorities

d. All of the above

Every person has a right to defend –

a. His own body, and the body of any other person, against any offence affecting the human body

b. The property against any act which is an offence falling under the definition of theft, robbery, mischief or criminal trespass

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. None of the above

https://youtu.be/XXn_WhK8O8I

https://youtu.be/ckqutxv3N1o?si=Y5kOFqeSqycu0xaK

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🥰 It's IPO rainy season 🌧️🤩

• There are 8 equity IPO on the mainboard and 2 SME IPO to apply currently. But you need not jump into all just by following the trend of GMP.

• Don't trap yourself into FOMO (fear of missing out). We have enough time to analyse and choose the right one to apply.

• The motive should not be to apply in all and waiting for the allotment. The motive should be to apply right and get the allotment.

• Circulate your fund wisely. Good Luck.

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📊Stock Suggestion | Index Glimpses | Equity and SME IPO Guide | Mutual Fund and SIP Guide

📊General Knowledge & Current Affairs revolving across the BULLS and the BEARS

📉Psychology: Confidence, Discipline, Focus, Consistency, Attitude, Patience

📈DISCLAIMER: We are not SEBI registered. For any kind of Profit & Loss, the channel and the admins are not responsible. All the suggestions here are for education purpose only. Investments are subject to market risk.

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Arshi Kaushar

A is in a house which is on fire, with Z, a child. People below hold out a blanket. A drops the child from the house top, knowing it to be likely that the fall may kill the child, but not intending to kill the child, and intending, in good faith, the child’s benefit.

a. A has committed offence

b. A has committed offence of culpable homicide amounting to murder

c. A has committed offence of culpable homicide not amounting to murder

d. A has committed no offence

AIBE subjects

1. Constitutional Law
2. IPC
3. BNS
4. CrPC
5. BNSS
6. CPC
7. Evidence
8. BSA
9. ADR
10. Company Law
11. IT Act
12. Contract
13. Motor Vehicles Act
14. Consumer Protection Act
15. Income Tax Act
16. Specific Relief Act
17. TPA
18. NIA
19. Land acquisition Act
20. Hindu Law (several legislations)
21. Labour Law (several legislations)
22. IPR (several legislations)
23. Environmental Law (several legislations)
24. Muslim Law (No Bare Act)
25. Administrative Law (No Bare Act)
26. Professional Ethics (No Bare Act)
27. Tort (No Bare Act)

Act of a person incapable of judgment by reason of intoxication caused against his will is not an offence –

a. When the thing which intoxicated him was administered to him without his knowledge

b. When the thing which intoxicated him was administered to him against his will

c. Either (a) or (b)

d. Irrespective of the thing which intoxicated him was administered to him without his knowledge or against his will

https://youtu.be/OxKFxHllPaY?si=dnJ4H0OHhuEMBu-7

https://youtu.be/CkdOYo9KsLA?si=8YmZAeLM_AC2ySAw

https://youtu.be/PRWGsSqWOmc?si=Bzbd2tE7MBUgL7WZ

A sees Z commit what appears to A to be a murder. A, in the exercise, to the best of his judgment exerted in good faith, of the power which the law gives to all persons of apprehending murderers in the fact, seizes Z, in order to bring Z before the proper authorities.

a. A has committed no offence, though it may turn out that Z was acting in self-defence

b. A has committed an offence

c. A has committed an offence if Z was acting in self-defence

d. A has committed an offence of false imprisonment

https://youtu.be/Aji6lMVZvGw?si=bl2UMt0naE_Poof_

What is a negotiable instrument❓

A negotiable instrument is a signed document that promises to pay a specific amount of money to a named person or assignee at a set time or on demand.

What is windfall tax❓

A tax levied on an unforeseen or unexpectedly large profit, especially one regarded to be excessive or unfairly obtained.

https://youtu.be/7sfZS88DWgA?si=-6BvskFynZxt-TAa

#motivation

गुरूर किस बात की करूं साहब
ये मिट्टी की शरीर एक दिन मिट्टी में मिल जानी है .....

https://youtu.be/vq2WKkNecWI?si=zVcsv8jU1i_rwjEP

संकल्प दृढ़ हो तो कुछ भी नामुमकिन नहीं 🌳

https://youtu.be/6EOROGJNtbI?si=fvVQD-QMgB-Zq2iF

In all cases in which judgment is given that a person is guilty of one of several offences specified in the judgment but that it is doubtful of which of these offences he is guilty, the offender shall be punished for the offences for which the ________ punishment is provided if the same punishment is not provided for all.

a. Lowest

b. Highest

c. Either (a) or (b)

d. None of the above

https://youtu.be/U-86V79sDxo?si=OQ0X-z1HF3XZyL37

https://youtu.be/cOnVhi4ijSo

A warrant of arrest is a legal document issued by a competent authority (usually a judge or magistrate) authorizing law enforcement agencies to arrest and detain a person suspected of committing a crime.

Purpose:

To ensure the accused appears in court to face charges.

Requirements:

1. Probable cause: Reasonable grounds to believe the person committed the offense.
2. Specific allegations: Clear description of the crime.
3. Identity of the accused: Name, address, or other identifying details.

Types of arrest warrants:

1. Regular warrant: Issued after a police complaint or investigation.
2. Bailable warrant: Allows the accused to be released on bail.
3. Non-bailable warrant (NBW): Accused cannot be released on bail.
4. Search warrant: Authorizes search and seizure of evidence.

Contents:

1. Name and description of the accused
2. Crime details (offense, date, location)
3. Authority issuing the warrant
4. Signature of the issuing authority
5. Date and time of issuance

Execution:

1. Police or other authorized officers serve the warrant.
2. Accused is arrested and taken into custody.
3. Brought before the court for further proceedings.

Consequences of non-compliance:

1. Arrest and detention
2. Further charges (e.g., evading arrest)
3. Impact on reputation and employment

Cancellation/Recall:

1. Court orders cancellation/recall.
2. Accused surrenders or is arrested.
3. Warrant is quashed due to lack of evidence.

Would you like information on the arrest process or related legal procedures?

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