ETHIO BIOLOGY GRADE 9-12

Macromolecules are large, complex molecules that are fundamental to the structure and function of living organisms. They are typically classified into four main categories: carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids.

1. Carbohydrates: These macromolecules are composed of sugar molecules and are primarily used for energy storage and structural support. They can be classified into monosaccharides (simple sugars), disaccharides (two sugar units), and polysaccharides (long chains of sugar units). Examples include glucose, sucrose, and starch.

2. Proteins: Made up of amino acids linked by peptide bonds, proteins serve a wide variety of functions in the body, including catalyzing biochemical reactions (enzymes), providing structural support (collagen), transporting molecules (hemoglobin), and facilitating immune responses (antibodies). The specific sequence of amino acids determines a protein's unique structure and function.

3. Lipids: This diverse group includes fats, oils, waxes, and steroids. Lipids are primarily hydrophobic and play crucial roles in energy storage, forming cell membranes (phospholipids), and serving as signaling molecules (steroids). They are essential for maintaining cellular integrity and energy balance.

4. Nucleic Acids: Composed of nucleotide monomers, nucleic acids such as DNA and RNA are vital for storing and transmitting genetic information. DNA carries the genetic blueprint for an organism, while RNA plays a key role in protein synthesis and regulation of gene expression.

Question 1
Which one of the following is a common type of secondary structure found in proteins?
A) Quaternary structure 
B) Alpha helix 
C) Tertiary structure 
D) Ligand binding 

Answer: B) Alpha helix

▎Question 2

What type of bonding primarily stabilizes the alpha helix structure in proteins?
A) Ionic bonds 
B) Hydrogen bonds 
C) Disulfide bonds 
D) Hydrophobic interactions 

Answer: B) Hydrogen bonds

▎Question 3

Which of the following statements is true regarding beta sheets in protein secondary structure?
A) They are always formed by adjacent amino acids in the same polypeptide chain. 
B) They can be parallel or antiparallel in orientation. 
C) They are stabilized solely by covalent bonds. 
D) They are less stable than alpha helices. 

Answer: B) They can be parallel or antiparallel in orientation.

▎Question 4

In the context of protein secondary structure, what does the term "turn" refer to?
A) A rigid structure that connects two alpha helices. 
B) A sequence of amino acids that allows for a change in direction of the polypeptide chain. 
C) A type of covalent bond that stabilizes structures. 
D) A form of tertiary structure. 

Answer: B) A sequence of amino acids that allows for a change in direction of the polypeptide chain.

▎Question 5

Which amino acid is often found in turns and loops due to its unique side chain?
A) Glycine 
B) Alanine 
C) Valine 
D) Phenylalanine 

Answer: A) Glycine

▎Question 1

Which of the following best describes the secondary structure of proteins?
A) The overall three-dimensional shape of a protein. 
B) The specific sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain. 
C) Regular patterns of folding or coiling in a polypeptide chain. 
D) The interaction between multiple polypeptide chains. 

Answer: C) Regular patterns of folding or coiling in a polypeptide chain.

▎Question 2

What type of secondary structure is characterized by a right-handed coil and is stabilized by hydrogen bonds between the backbone amide and carbonyl groups?
A) Beta sheet 
B) Alpha helix 
C) Random coil 
D) Triple helix 

Answer: B) Alpha helix

▎Question 3

In beta sheets, what is the orientation of the polypeptide strands?
A) Always parallel to each other 
B) Always antiparallel to each other 
C) Can be either parallel or antiparallel 
D) Randomly oriented 

Answer: C) Can be either parallel or antiparallel

▎Question 4

Which amino acid is known for introducing kinks in alpha helices and is often found in turns due to its side chain structure?
A) Proline 
B) Serine 
C) Glutamate 
D) Cysteine 

Answer: A) Proline

▎Question 5

What stabilizes the beta sheet structure in proteins?
A) Ionic bonds between side chains 
B) Hydrogen bonds between backbone atoms of adjacent strands 
C) Hydrophobic interactions among nonpolar side chains 
D) Disulfide bridges between cysteine residues 

Answer: B) Hydrogen bonds between backbone atoms of adjacent strands

▎Question 6

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of secondary protein structures?
A) They involve local folding of the polypeptide chain. 
B) They are primarily stabilized by hydrogen bonds. 
C) They determine the overall function of the protein. 
D) They can form motifs such as alpha-beta barrels. 

Answer: C) They determine the overall function of the protein.

▎Question 7

What is the role of hydrogen bonds in protein secondary structures?
A) They provide covalent linkage between amino acids. 
B) They stabilize the folded conformation of the polypeptide chain. 
C) They facilitate the binding of ligands to the protein. 
D) They assist in the formation of disulfide bonds. 

Answer: B) They stabilize the folded conformation of the polypeptide chain.

▎Question 1

Which of the following is the most common type of secondary structure found in proteins?
A) Beta sheet 
B) Alpha helix 
C) Random coil 
D) Turn 

Answer: B) Alpha helix

▎Question 2

In an alpha helix, how many amino acid residues typically form one complete turn of the helix?
A) 3.6 
B) 5.4 
C) 7.2 
D) 10 

Answer: A) 3.6

▎Question 3

What type of bonding primarily stabilizes the beta sheet structure in proteins?
A) Ionic bonds 
B) Hydrogen bonds 
C) Van der Waals forces 
D) Disulfide bridges 

Answer: B) Hydrogen bonds

▎Question 4

Which of the following amino acids is most likely to disrupt an alpha helix due to its unique structure?
A) Alanine 
B) Glycine 
C) Leucine 
D) Glutamine 
Answer: B) Glycine

▎Question 5

In a beta sheet, the strands can be oriented in which of the following ways?
A) Only parallel 
B) Only antiparallel 
C) Both parallel and antiparallel 
D) Randomly oriented 

Answer: C) Both parallel and antiparallel

▎Question 6

Which type of secondary structure is often involved in turns and loops within proteins?
A) Alpha helix 
B) Beta sheet 
C) Random coil 
D) Beta turn 

Answer: D) Beta turn

▎Question 7

What is the significance of proline in the context of protein secondary structure?
A) It stabilizes alpha helices. 
B) It forms hydrogen bonds in beta sheets. 
C) It introduces kinks or bends in polypeptide chains. 
D) It enhances hydrophobic interactions. 

Answer: C) It introduces kinks or bends in polypeptide chains.

▎Question 8

Which of the following statements about secondary structures is FALSE?
A) Secondary structures are stabilized by hydrogen bonds between backbone atoms. 
B) Secondary structures are independent of the primary sequence of amino acids. 
C) Secondary structures can form motifs such as alpha-beta barrels. 
D) Secondary structures contribute to the overall three-dimensional shape of a protein. 

Answer: B) Secondary structures are independent of the primary sequence of amino acids.

▎Question 9

Which structural feature is NOT characteristic of an alpha helix?
A) Right-handed twist 
B) Side chains protruding outward from the helix 
C) Hydrogen bonds between every fourth amino acid 
D) Formation of disulfide bridges 

Answer: D) Formation of disulfide bridges

▎Question 10

The Ramachandran plot is used to visualize:
A) The tertiary structure of proteins. 
B) The potential conformations of the polypeptide backbone. 
C) The interactions between different protein subunits. 
D) The location of active sites in enzymes. 

Answer: B) The potential conformations of the polypeptide backbone

"ሕፃን ተወልዶልናልና፥ ወንድ ልጅም ተሰጥቶናልና፤ አለቅነትም በጫንቃው ላይ ይሆናል፤ ስሙም ድንቅ መካር፥ ኃያል አምላክ፥ የዘላለም አባት፥ የሰላም አለቃ ተብሎ ይጠራል።"
- ኢሳይያስ 9፥6
ለመላው የክርስትና እምነት ተከታዮች መልካም የመድሀኒታችን የክርስቶስ እየሱስ የልደት መታሰቢያ በዓል ይሁንላችሁ!!!

የትምህርት ምዘናና ፈተናዎች አገልግሎት ከ12ኛ ክፍል ፈተና ጋር በተያያዘ የሚከተሉትን መረጃዎች አያይዟል

♻️የ12ኛ ክፍል ሀገር አቀፍ ፈተና ምዝገባ ጥር 6 /2017 ዓ/ም ከቀኑ 10፡00 ሰዓት ላይ የሚጠናቀቅ ይሆናል። ስለሆነም ምዝገባ ያላጠናቀቃችሁ ከቀነ ገደቡ አስቀድማችሁ እንድታጠናቅቁ ብሏል።

♻️የ2017 የትምህርት ዘመን ፈተናዎች ይዘት የሀገር አቀፍ 12ኛ ክፍል ፈተና በአጠቃላይ ሁኔታ ከ9 - 12ኛ ክፍሎች እንዲሁም የ8ኛ ክፍል ክልላዊ ፈተና ከ7- 8ኛ ክፍሎች የሚሸፍን እንደሚሆን ገልጿል።

♻️ እያንዳንዱ ተማሪ በተማረበት የክፍል ደረጃ የተማረውን የተማሪ መጽሐፍን መሠረት አድርጎ ሊዘጋጅ ይገባል።

A snake in the grass.

22. What ion is critical for muscle contraction and neurotransmitter release?  
    A) Magnesium  
    B) Calcium  
    C) Sodium  
    D) Chloride  
    Answer: B) Calcium

23. Which element is a key component of hemoglobin?  
    A) Sodium  
    B) Iron  
    C) Calcium  
    D) Potassium  
    Answer: B) Iron

24. Sodium and potassium are important for which physiological process?  
    A) Muscle contraction only  
    B) Nerve impulse transmission only  
    C) Both muscle contraction and nerve impulse transmission  
    D) Blood clotting only  
    Answer: C) Both muscle contraction and nerve impulse transmission

25. What role does phosphorus play in biological systems?  
    A) Oxygen transport  
    B) Energy transfer (ATP formation)  
    C) Structural component of proteins  
    D) Regulation of pH levels   
    Answer: B) Energy transfer (ATP formation)

▎Water and pH

26. What property of water allows it to dissolve many substances?   
    A) Polarity   
    B) High specific heat   
    C) Cohesion   
    D) Low density   
    Answer: A) Polarity   

27. Which of the following contributes to the high surface tension of water?   
    A) Hydrogen bonds   
    B) Ionic bonds   
    C) Covalent bonds   
    D) Van der Waals forces   
    Answer: A) Hydrogen bonds   

28. What is the pH range of neutral solutions?   
    A) 0-7   
    B) 7-14   
    C) 1-14   
    D) 6-8   
    Answer: B) 7-14   

29. Which term describes substances that can donate protons (H+) in solution?   
    A) Bases   
    B) Acids   
    C) Salts   
    D) Buffers   
    Answer: B) Acids   

30. What is the primary buffer system in human blood?   
    A) Carbonate buffer system   
    B) Phosphate buffer system   
    C) Protein buffer system   
    D) Ammonia buffer system   
    Answer: A) Carbonate buffer system   

▎General Concepts

31. Which biomolecule type is primarily used for energy production in cells?   
     A. Carbohydrates   
     B. Nucleic acids   
     C. Proteins   
     D. Lipids   
     Answer: A. Carbohydrates   

32. The process by which enzymes speed up biochemical reactions is known as:   
     A. Hydrolysis   
     B. Activation energy reduction   
     C. Denaturation   
     D. Dehydration synthesis   
     Answer: B. Activation energy reduction   

33. Which class of biomolecules includes sugars and starches?   
     A. Proteins   
     B. Nucleic acids   
     C. Carbohydrates   
     D. Lipids   
     Answer: C. Carbohydrates   

34. What type of reaction forms peptide bonds between amino acids?   
     A. Hydrolysis   
     B. Condensation (dehydration synthesis）   
     C. Oxidation-reduction   
     D. Phosphorylation   
     Answer: B. Condensation (dehydration synthesis）   

35. Which organic molecule serves as the genetic material in most living organisms?   
     A. RNA   
     B. DNA   
     C. Protein   
     D. Carbohydrate   
     Answer: B. DNA   

36. Which element is commonly found in proteins but not in carbohydrates or lipids?   
     A. Carbon   
     B. Nitrogen   
     C. Oxygen   
     D. Hydrogen   
     Answer: B. Nitrogen   

37. The primary function of ATP (adenosine triphosphate):   
     A. Genetic information storage    
     B. Energy currency of the cell    
     C. Structural integrity    
     D. Hormonal regulation    
     Answer: B. Energy currency of the cell    

38. What type of biological macromolecule are enzymes classified as?

A. Lipids    
     B. Carbohydrates    
     C. Proteins    
     D. Nucleic acids    
     Answer: C. Proteins    

39. Which biomolecule can act as an enzyme, a hormone, or an antibody?    
     A. Carbohydrate    
     B. Lipid    
     C. Protein    
     D. Nucleic acid    
     Answer: C. Protein    

40. Which type of bond holds together the two strands of DNA?    
     A. Peptide bonds    
     B. Ionic bonds    
     C. Hydrogen bonds    
     D. Covalent bonds    
     Answer: C. Hydrogen bonds    

1. What is the primary structure of an enzyme?
   a) The sequence of amino acids 
   b) The three-dimensional shape 
   c) The arrangement of polypeptide chains 
   d) The active site configuration 

   Answer: a) The sequence of amino acids

2. Which of the following factors can affect enzyme activity?
   a) Temperature 
   b) pH 
   c) Substrate concentration 
   d) All of the above 

   Answer: d) All of the above

3. Enzymes are typically composed of:
   a) Nucleic acids 
   b) Lipids 
   c) Proteins 
   d) Carbohydrates 

   Answer: c) Proteins

4. What is the term for the specific region on an enzyme where the substrate binds?
   a) Active site 
   b) Inhibitor site 
   c) Allosteric site 
   d) Binding site 

   Answer: a) Active site

5. The temperature at which an enzyme exhibits maximum activity is known as:
   a) Optimal temperature 
   b) Denaturation point 
   c) Activation energy 
   d) Equilibrium temperature 

   Answer: a) Optimal temperature

6. Which property of enzymes allows them to accelerate chemical reactions?
   a) They increase the activation energy required. 
   b) They provide an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy. 
   c) They change the equilibrium of the reaction. 
   d) They consume substrates in large amounts. 

   Answer: b) They provide an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy.

7. Which term describes the loss of enzyme activity due to high temperatures or extreme pH levels?
   a) Activation 
   b) Inhibition 
   c) Denaturation 
   d) Saturation 

   Answer: c) Denaturation

8. The specificity of enzymes is largely determined by:
   a) Their size 
   b) Their shape and charge distribution 
   c) Their concentration 
   d) Their source 

   Answer: b) Their shape and charge distribution

9. What effect does increasing substrate concentration have on enzyme activity, assuming all other factors are constant?
   a) It always increases activity indefinitely. 
   b) It increases activity until a maximum rate is reached (Vmax). 
   c) It decreases activity due to saturation. 
   d) It has no effect on enzyme activity. 

   Answer: b) It increases activity until a maximum rate is reached (Vmax).

10. Which of the following statements about enzyme cofactors is true?
    a) They are always organic molecules. 
    b) They can be metal ions or organic molecules. 
    c) They are not essential for enzyme function. 
    d) They decrease enzyme activity. 

    Answer: b) They can be metal ions or organic molecules.

It's not about who's real to your #face; It's about who stays loyal or real #behind your back.

1. What is a substrate in the context of enzymatic reactions?
   A) A product of the reaction 
   B) A molecule that an enzyme acts upon 
   C) An inhibitor of the enzyme 
   D) A cofactor required for enzyme activity 
   Answer: B) A molecule that an enzyme acts upon

2. What does activation energy refer to?
   A) The energy released during a reaction 
   B) The energy required to initiate a reaction 
   C) The energy stored in substrates 
   D) The energy produced by enzymes 
   Answer: B) The energy required to initiate a reaction

3. Which of the following can lower the activation energy of a reaction?
   A) Temperature increase 
   B) Enzymes 
   C) Catalysts 
   D) Both B and C 
   Answer: D) Both B and C

4. Which statement about enzymes is true?
   A) Enzymes are consumed in the reaction. 
   B) Enzymes can only work on one specific substrate. 
   C) Enzymes increase the activation energy needed for a reaction. 
   D) Enzymes are not affected by temperature or pH. 
   Answer: B) Enzymes can only work on one specific substrate.

5. What happens to the activation energy when an enzyme is present?
   A) It increases. 
   B) It decreases. 
   C) It remains the same. 
   D) It becomes zero. 
   Answer: B) It decreases.

6. Which of the following factors does NOT affect enzyme activity?
   A) Temperature 
   B) pH 
   C) Concentration of substrate 
   D) Color of the substrate 
   Answer: D) Color of the substrate

7. In a reaction catalyzed by an enzyme, the term "transition state" refers to:
   A) The final product of the reaction 
   B) The state where substrate binds to the enzyme 
   C) An unstable state that occurs during the conversion of substrates to products 
   D) The initial state of the substrates before the reaction 
   Answer: C) An unstable state that occurs during the conversion of substrates to products

8. What is meant by "enzyme specificity"?
   A) Enzymes can act on any substrate. 
   B) Enzymes only catalyze reactions at high temperatures. 
   C) Enzymes are selective for particular substrates. 
   D) Enzymes are only active in certain pH ranges. 
   Answer: C) Enzymes are selective for particular substrates.

9. Which of the following describes a competitive inhibitor?
   A) It binds to the enzyme-substrate complex. 
   B) It binds to the active site of the enzyme, preventing substrate binding. 
   C) It changes the shape of the enzyme. 
   D) It increases the activation energy of the reaction. 
   Answer: B) It binds to the active site of the enzyme, preventing substrate binding.

10. What role do cofactors play in enzymatic reactions?
    A) They increase activation energy. 
    B) They enhance enzyme activity by assisting in substrate binding or catalytic activity. 
    C) They serve as substrates themselves. 
    D) They inhibit enzyme activity. 
    Answer: B) They enhance enzyme activity by assisting in substrate binding or catalytic activity.

11. The Michaelis-Menten equation describes:
    A) The relationship between substrate concentration and reaction rate for enzymes. 
    B) The effect of temperature on enzyme activity. 
    C) The structure of enzymes. 
    D) The process of enzyme denaturation. 
    Answer: A) The relationship between substrate concentration and reaction rate for enzymes.

12. Which type of inhibition can be overcome by increasing substrate concentration?
    A) Non-competitive inhibition 
    B) Competitive inhibition 
    C) Irreversible inhibition 
    D) Allosteric inhibition 
    Answer: B) Competitive inhibition

13. What effect does increasing temperature generally have on enzyme activity, up to a certain point?
    A) Decreases activity due to denaturation

B) Increases activity due to increased kinetic energy 
    C) No effect on activity 
    D) Completely stops activity 
    Answer: B) Increases activity due to increased kinetic energy

14. In enzymatic reactions, what is meant by "enzyme saturation"?
    A) All enzymes are denatured. 
    B) All active sites are occupied by substrates. 
    C) There is no substrate available for binding. 
    D) The enzyme is producing maximum product output. 
    Answer: B) All active sites are occupied by substrates.

15. What is the significance of the active site on an enzyme?
    A) It provides structural support to the enzyme. 
    B) It is where substrates bind and undergo a chemical reaction. 
    C) It determines the color of the enzyme. 
    D) It stores energy for the reaction. 
    Answer: B) It is where substrates bind and undergo a chemical reaction.

16. Which of the following statements is true regarding non-competitive inhibitors?
    A) They bind only to the active site of an enzyme. 
    B) They can bind to either the enzyme or the enzyme-substrate complex, reducing overall activity without affecting substrate binding. 
    C) They increase substrate affinity for the enzyme. 
    D) They are always reversible. 
    Answer: B) They can bind to either the enzyme or the enzyme-substrate complex, reducing overall activity without affecting substrate binding.

17. The term "allosteric regulation" refers to:
    A) The binding of substrates at the active site only. 
    B) Regulation of enzyme activity through binding at sites other than the active site, causing conformational changes. 
    C) The irreversible modification of an enzyme's active site. 
    D) The breakdown of enzymes into smaller peptides. 
    Answer: B) Regulation of enzyme activity through binding at sites other than the active site, causing conformational changes.

18. Which statement best describes how enzymes affect chemical reactions?
    A) They increase both activation energy and reaction rate. 
    B) They decrease activation energy and increase reaction rate without being consumed in the process.  
    C) They change the equilibrium position of a reaction.  
    D) They convert substrates into products without any energy changes involved.  
    Answer: B) They decrease activation energy and increase reaction rate without being consumed in the process.

19. Which factor would most likely lead to denaturation of an enzyme?
    A) Optimal temperature and pH levels  
    B) Increased salt concentration beyond tolerance  
    C) Increased substrate concentration  
    D) Presence of cofactors  
    Answer: B) Increased salt concentration beyond tolerance

20. What is an example of a biological catalyst?
    A) DNA  
    B) RNA  
    C) Protein (enzyme)  
    D) Lipid  
    Answer: C) Protein (enzyme)

ETHIO BIOLOGY GRADE 9-12:
1. What are enzymes?

   • A) Carbohydrates

   • B) Proteins

   • C) Lipids

   • D) Nucleic acids 
   Answer: B) Proteins

2. Which of the following is a characteristic of enzymes?

   • A) They are consumed in reactions.

   • B) They speed up chemical reactions.

   • C) They are always active.

   • D) They can work at any temperature. 
   Answer: B) They speed up chemical reactions.

3. What is the active site of an enzyme?

   • A) The part that binds to substrates

   • B) The part that determines enzyme stability

   • C) The part that is involved in enzyme synthesis

   • D) The part that is identical in all enzymes 
   Answer: A) The part that binds to substrates

4. Which factor does NOT affect enzyme activity?

   • A) Temperature

   • B) pH

   • C) Substrate concentration

   • D) Color of the enzyme 
   Answer: D) Color of the enzyme

5. What is an enzyme inhibitor?

   • A) A substance that increases enzyme activity

   • B) A substance that decreases enzyme activity

   • C) A substance that is identical to the substrate

   • D) A type of enzyme 
   Answer: B) A substance that decreases enzyme activity

6. Which of the following statements about coenzymes is true?

   • A) They are inorganic molecules.

   • B) They are permanently attached to the enzyme.

   • C) They are organic molecules that assist in enzyme function.

   • D) They can only be used once. 
   Answer: C) They are organic molecules that assist in enzyme function.

7. What type of reaction do hydrolases catalyze?

   • A) Oxidation-reduction reactions

   • B) Hydrolysis reactions

   • C) Condensation reactions

   • D) Isomerization reactions 
   Answer: B) Hydrolysis reactions

8. Which enzyme is responsible for breaking down hydrogen peroxide?

   • A) Amylase

   • B) Catalase

   • C) Lipase

   • D) Protease 
   Answer: B) Catalase

9. What is the effect of increasing substrate concentration on enzyme activity, assuming all other factors are constant?

   • A) It will always increase activity.

   • B) It will eventually reach a maximum velocity (Vmax).

   • C) It will decrease activity.

   • D) It has no effect on activity. 
   Answer: B) It will eventually reach a maximum velocity (Vmax).

10. Which of the following is an example of a zymogen?

    • A) Pepsinogen

    • B) Amylase

    • C) Lactase

    • D) Sucrase 
    Answer: A) Pepsinogen

11. Enzymes lower the activation energy of a reaction by:

    • A) Increasing substrate concentration

    • B) Providing an alternative reaction pathway

    • C) Increasing temperature

    • D) Decreasing product formation 
    Answer: B) Providing an alternative reaction pathway

12. Which term describes the maximum rate of an enzymatic reaction?

    • A) Km

    • B) Vmax

    • C) Kcat

    • D) Turnover number 
    Answer: B) Vmax

13. What does Km represent in enzyme kinetics?

    • A) The maximum rate of reaction

    • B) The substrate concentration at which the reaction rate is half of Vmax

    • C) The total amount of enzyme present

    • D) The efficiency of the enzyme 
    Answer: B) The substrate concentration at which the reaction rate is half of Vmax

14. Which type of inhibition can be overcome by increasing substrate concentration?

    • A) Competitive inhibition

    • B) Non-competitive inhibition

    • C) Uncompetitive inhibition

    • D) Allosteric inhibition 
    Answer: A) Competitive inhibition

15. Enzymes that catalyze the transfer of functional groups are called:

    • A) Oxidoreductases

    • B) Transferases

    • C) Hydrolases

    • D) Ligases

Answer: B) Transferases

16. Which of the following statements about allosteric enzymes is true?

    • A) They follow Michaelis-Menten kinetics.

    • B) They have multiple active sites.

    • C) Their activity can be regulated by allosteric effectors.

    • D) They cannot be inhibited. 
    Answer: C) Their activity can be regulated by allosteric effectors.

17. What is the role of chaperone proteins in relation to enzymes?

    • A) They catalyze reactions.

    • B) They assist in protein folding.

    • C) They degrade misfolded proteins.

    • D) They provide energy for enzymatic reactions. 
    Answer: B) They assist in protein folding.

18. Which enzyme is used in DNA replication?

    • A) RNA polymerase

    • B) DNA ligase

    • C) DNA polymerase

    • D) Helicase 
    Answer: C) DNA polymerase

19. Enzymes that catalyze the formation of bonds with the use of ATP are known as:

    • A) Ligases

    • B) Lyases

    • C) Isomerases

    • D) Transferases 
    Answer: A) Ligases

20. What type of bond stabilizes the structure of enzymes?

    • A) Covalent bonds only

    • B) Ionic bonds only

    • C) Hydrogen bonds and hydrophobic interactions

    • D) Van der Waals forces only 
    Answer: C) Hydrogen bonds and hydrophobic interactions

  ቢሮው ሚዛኑን የማይስት እና አይኑን ገልፆ ማየት ከቻለው ርቀት በላይ ማሰብ እና ማሰላሠል ከሚችሉ የዘመኑ ወጣት የስራ ሃላፊዎች ውስጥ እንዲሁም የአለም ሃያላን  ሀገራት ቁጥር አንድ ቅድሚያ ለሚሰጡት  የት/ት ስራ ጥሌን  በሃላፊነት በማምጣቱ የእርሱን ብቃት ለሚያውቁ ትልቅ ተስፋ ነው።አሁንም እንላለን  እንደ ጥሌ አይነቶች ሁኔታዎችን ያለምንም የጎንዮሽ መነፅር የሚመለከቱ እንደ ወርቅ የነጠሩ የሀገራችን ወጣት አሰላሳይ እና ለፈውስ የሚሆኑ: የመድሀኒት ብልቃጥ እንጂ ለጥፋት የሚውል የመርዝ ብልቃጥ ያልሆኑ: በራሳቸውም በሌላውም ጫማ ውስጥ ሆነው ሁኔታዎችን የሚመለከቱ  ጥበብ: እውቀት እዝነት ካለው እሳቤ ጋር   ወደፊት እየመጡ ለሀገሪቱ እና ለህዝቡ ይሰራሉ ። ትናንት የሰራኸው ስራ  ዛሬ  ላይ አርነት አውጥቶሀል!  ነገም አርነት የሚያወጣህን እንደ በፊቱ ብቻ ሳይሆን በላቀ ደረጃ ልቅም ያለ ስራ እየሰራህ የተሠጠህን ሃላፊነት በአግባቡ እንድትወጣ  አደራ እንላለን።
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በነበርክበት  ተቋም የሰራኸው ስራ አሁንም አፍ አውጥቶ   ብልህነትህን ይመሰክራል።
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  አቶ ጥላዬ ዘውዴ  (የአዲስ አበባ ከተማ አስተዳደር ትምህርት ቢሮ የአጠቃላይ ትምህርት ሱፐርቪዥን ዳይሬክተር)
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አሁንም  ነገርህን ለፈጣሪ ብቻ በሙሉ እምነት  ከመስጠት ፈቀቅ እንዳትል እያልን  መልካም የስራ ዘመን እንመኝልሀለን።

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🤏ከሀገርህ ልጆች

"የኔ ነገር በሰው እጅ አይደለም" አቶ ጥላዬ ዘውዴ

በወቅቱ በሆነው ነገር ሁሉም ደንግጦ ስለነበር ጥሌ የነበረው ቀናነት እና የስራ ጉልበት እንዳይሰበር የማበረታቻ ቃላት ሲነግረው ሁሌ የሚመልሰው አንድ ነገር  "የኔ ነገር በሰው እጅ አይደለም:: ፈጣሪዬ በእኔ ላይ ይህ እንዲሆን ስለፈለገ ብቻ ነው የሆነው ሁሉ የሆነው" ነበር:: በዚህ ክፉ እና የሰው ልጅ ከፈጣሪው ፈቀቅ እያለ ባለበት ዘመን  ነገርህን ማንም ለማይጋፋው ለሀያሉ ፈጣሪ በሙሉ እምነት መሰጠት  መታደል ነው።  በስራ አጋጣሚ ከማውቃቸው የስራ ሀላፊዎች  እጅግ በጣም ጥሩ ንቃተ ህሊና ካላቸው ልጅ እግር የስራ ሃላፊዎች  ጥሌ ቁጥር አንድ ነው። "ያለህ ነገር ለሌላው የማይተርፍ ከሆነ ምንም እንደሌለህ ቁጠረው:: በት/ት ስራ ላይ እየሰራህ  ደግሞ  ለት/ት ፈላጊው አካል የማይተርፍ እውቀትን እውቀት ትለዋለህ"?  ይላል ጥሌ። ሁሉም የራሱን መልስ ለራሱ ይሰጣል።ጥሌ የት/ት ስራን ከሚሰራ ባለሙያ አንድን ጉዳይ በግልፅ ይጠላል:: እሱም በሆነ ይዘት ወይም ጉዳይ ላይ መሰለኝ ብሎ ሀሳብ መስጠትን!              ” አንብቡ ያላወቃችሁትን  ጠቃሚ ነገር ለማወቅ ጣሩ ጠይቁ በትክክል ያልተረዳችሁት  ወይም ያላወቃችሁት ነገር  ካለ አለማወቃችሁን ተረዱት በመሰለኝ ሃሣብ አትስጡ" የሚለው ምክሩ አብረውት ለሚሰሩ ሁሉ ራስን ማያ ምክር እና ቡጢ ነበር። እንደውም "መሰለኝ" የሚለው ቃል የሰውን እሳቤ እና ስብእና የሚለካበት ፓራሜትር  ይመስለኛል:: 😁😁😁😁እዚህ ጋር አደራ።

1. How does body size generally affect thermoregulation in mammals? 
   a) Larger animals lose heat faster than smaller animals 
   b) Smaller animals have a higher surface area-to-volume ratio, leading to faster heat loss 
   c) Body size has no effect on thermoregulation 
   d) Larger animals require more energy to maintain their body temperature 

   Correct Answer: b) Smaller animals have a higher surface area-to-volume ratio, leading to faster heat loss

2. Which of the following is a reason why smaller animals may struggle with thermoregulation in cold environments? 
   a) They have more fat reserves 
   b) They have a lower metabolic rate 
   c) They lose heat more quickly due to a higher surface area-to-volume ratio 
   d) They can generate heat more efficiently 

   Correct Answer: c) They lose heat more quickly due to a higher surface area-to-volume ratio

3. In terms of thermoregulation, what adaptation might larger animals have compared to smaller animals? 
   a) Increased number of sweat glands 
   b) A thicker layer of insulation (fat or fur) 
   c) Higher metabolic rates 
   d) More efficient cooling mechanisms 

   Correct Answer: b) A thicker layer of insulation (fat or fur)

4. What is a common thermoregulatory challenge faced by very small mammals, such as shrews? 
   a) Overheating due to high metabolic rates 
   b) Difficulty in retaining heat due to high surface area-to-volume ratios 
   c) Inability to find food sources 
   d) Excessive fat storage 

   Correct Answer: b) Difficulty in retaining heat due to high surface area-to-volume ratios

5. Which of the following statements is true regarding the relationship between body size and thermoregulation? 
   a) Larger animals can easily adapt to extreme temperature changes without any physiological changes. 
   b) Smaller animals tend to have adaptations that allow for rapid heat loss. 
   c) Body size has no influence on the methods of thermoregulation used by animals. 
   d) All animals maintain a constant body temperature regardless of size. 

   Correct Answer: b) Smaller animals tend to have adaptations that allow for rapid heat loss.

Grade 11 Biology
Unit 4 -Genetics

1. What is unit of heredity?

   • A) Chromosome

   • B) Gene

   • C) DNA

   • D) RNA 
   Answer: B) Gene

2. Which scientist is known as the father of genetics?

   • A) Charles Darwin

   • B) Gregor Mendel

   • C) James Watson

   • D) Francis Crick 
   Answer: B) Gregor Mendel

3. What is the physical expression of a gene called?

   • A) Genotype

   • B) Phenotype

   • C) Allele

   • D) Locus 
   Answer: B) Phenotype

4. What term describes different forms of a gene?

   • A) Genotype

   • B) Alleles

   • C) Chromatids

   • D) Loci 
   Answer: B) Alleles

5. In humans, what is the total number of chromosomes?

   • A) 23

   • B) 46

   • C) 22 pairs

   • D) 44 
   Answer: B) 46

6. Which type of inheritance involves multiple genes affecting a single trait?

   • A) Monogenic inheritance

   • B) Polygenic inheritance

   • C) Codominance

   • D) Incomplete dominance 
   Answer: B) Polygenic inheritance

7. What is the term for an organism's genetic makeup?

   • A) Phenotype

   • B) Genotype

   • C) Karyotype

   • D) Allele 
   Answer: B) Genotype

8. Which of the following represents a homozygous genotype?

   • A) Aa

   • B) AA

   • C) AB

   • D) Aab 
   Answer: B) AA

9. What type of cross would you perform to determine the genotype of an individual with a dominant phenotype?

   • A) Dihybrid cross

   • B) Test cross

   • C) Monohybrid cross

   • D) Back cross 
   Answer: B) Test cross

10. What is the expected phenotypic ratio of a monohybrid cross?

    • A) 1:2:1

    • B) 3:1

    • C) 9:3:3:1

    • D) 1:1 
    Answer: B) 3:1

11. Which genetic disorder is caused by a single gene mutation on chromosome 7?

    • A) Cystic fibrosis

    • B) Sickle cell anemia

    • C) Huntington's disease

    • D) Tay-Sachs disease 
    Answer: A) Cystic fibrosis

12. What is the purpose of a Punnett square?

    • A) To determine the number of chromosomes

    • B) To predict the probability of genotypes and phenotypes in offspring

    • C) To analyze DNA sequences

    • D) To identify mutations 
    Answer: B) To predict the probability of genotypes and phenotypes in offspring

13. Which type of RNA carries amino acids to the ribosome?

    • A) mRNA

    • B) rRNA

    • C) tRNA

    • D) snRNA 
    Answer: C) tRNA

14. What is the role of DNA polymerase during DNA replication?

    • A) Unzips the DNA strand

    • B) Synthesizes new DNA strands

    • C) Joins Okazaki fragments

    • D) Repairs damaged DNA 
    Answer: B) Synthesizes new DNA strands

15. What is a karyotype?

    • A) The complete set of genes in an organism

    • B) The number and appearance of chromosomes in the nucleus of a cell

    • C) The physical expression of traits

    • D) The sequence of nucleotides in DNA 
    Answer: B) The number and appearance of chromosomes in the nucleus of a cell

16. Which process results in the formation of gametes?

    • A) Mitosis

    • B) Meiosis

    • C) Binary fission

    • D) Budding 
    Answer: B) Meiosis

17. What is the term for a segment of DNA that codes for a protein?

    • A) Exon

    • B) Intron

    • C) Codon

    • D) Gene 
    Answer: D) Gene

18. Which type of mutation involves a change in a single nucleotide?

    • A) Frameshift mutation

    • B) Point mutation

    • C) Insertion mutation

    • D) Deletion mutation 
    Answer: B) Point mutation

19. What is the main function of ribosomes in a cell?

    • A) DNA replication

    • B) Protein synthesis

    • C) Lipid synthesis

    • D) Energy production 
    Answer: B) Protein synthesis

20. Which of the following is an example of codominance?

    • A) Pink flowers from red and white parents

    • B) Blood type AB from A and B parents

• C) Tall and short plants producing medium height plants

    • D) Yellow and green peas producing only yellow peas 
    Answer: B) Blood type AB from A and B parents

21. What is epistasis?

    • A) The interaction between two alleles at the same locus.

    • B) The interaction between genes at different loci.

    • C) The expression of one gene masking another.

    • D) The segregation of alleles during gamete formation. 
    Answer: C) The expression of one gene masking another.

22. Which type of inheritance pattern does not follow Mendel's laws?

    • A) Autosomal dominant inheritance

    • B) Sex-linked inheritance

    • C) Incomplete dominance

    • D) All follow Mendel's laws 
    Answer: D) All follow Mendel's laws

23. What is the primary function of messenger RNA (mRNA)?

    • A) To carry amino acids to ribosomes.

    • B) To transfer genetic information from DNA to ribosomes.

    • C) To form ribosomes.

    • D) To splice RNA transcripts. 
    Answer: B) To transfer genetic information from DNA to ribosomes.

24. Which chromosome determines male sex in humans?

    • A) X chromosome

    • B) Y chromosome

    • C) Both X and Y chromosomes equally determine sex.

    • D) None; sex is determined by environmental factors. 
    Answer: B) Y chromosome

25. What is the role of helicase in DNA replication?

    • A) Synthesizes new DNA strands.

    • B) Unwinds the double helix.

    • C) Joins Okazaki fragments.

    • D) Repairs damaged DNA. 
    Answer: B) Unwinds the double helix.

26. What term describes a trait that is expressed only when two copies are present?

    • A) Dominant trait

    • B) Recessive trait

    • C) Codominant trait

    • D) Incomplete dominant trait 
    Answer: B) Recessive trait

27. Which type of RNA is involved in splicing introns from pre-mRNA?

    • A) mRNA

    • B) tRNA

    • C) rRNA

    • D) snRNA 
    Answer: D) snRNA

28. What is a phenotype ratio in a dihybrid cross?

    • A) 1:2:1

    • B) 3:1

    • C) 9:3:3:1

    • D) 1:1
   Answer: C) 9:3:3:1

29. Which genetic disorder results from a trisomy on chromosome 21?

     • A) Turner syndrome

     • B) Klinefelter syndrome

     • C ) Down syndrome

     • D ) Marfan syndrome
     Answer: C ) Down syndrome

30. In which phase of meiosis does crossing over occur?

     • A ) Prophase I

     • B ) Metaphase I

     • C ) Anaphase I

     • D ) Telophase I
     Answer: A ) Prophase I

31. What is the result of nondisjunction during meiosis?

     • A ) Normal chromosome number

     • B ) Monosomy or trisomy

     • C ) Increased genetic variation

     • D ) No effect on offspring
     Answer: B ) Monosomy or trisomy

32. Which process converts mRNA into protein?

     • A ) Transcription

     • B ) Translation

     • C ) Replication

     • D ) Splicing
     Answer: B ) Translation

33. What type of inheritance pattern does sickle cell anemia follow?

     • A ) Autosomal recessive

     • B ) Autosomal dominant

     • C ) X-linked recessive

     • D ) Mitochondrial inheritance
     Answer: A ) Autosomal recessive

34. In genetics, what does "P" stand for in a Punnett square?

     • A ) Parental generation

     • B ) Phenotype

     • C ) Progeny

     • D ) Polygenic traits
     Answer: A ) Parental generation

35. How many alleles can an individual possess for a particular gene?

     • A ) One

     • B ) Two

     • C ) Three

     • D ) Multiple
     Answer: B ) Two

36. What is the role of telomeres in chromosomes?

     • A ) Protects against degradation

     • B ) Codes for proteins

     • C ) Facilitates transcription

     • D ) Assists in DNA replication
     Answer: A ) Protects against degradation

37. Which process involves the exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes?

     • A ) Mutation

     • B ) Crossing over

–C)**Color blindness   
–D)**Height   
–Answer:C)**Color blindness

56.How many base pairs make up one complete turn of the DNA helix?  
–A)**10 base pairs    
–B)**20 base pairs    
–C)**30 base pairs    
–D)**40 base pairs    
–Answer:A)**10 base pairs

57.What is a genotype ratio expected from a monohybrid cross between two heterozygotes (Aa x Aa)?  

• A)*1 AA : 2 Aa : 1 aa    

• B)*3 Aa : 1 aa    

• C)*1 Aa : 1 aa    

• D)*2 AA : 2 aa    

• *Answer:*A)*1 AA : 2 Aa : 1 aa

58.In which phase do sister chromatids separate during meiosis?  

• A)*Prophase I    

• B)*Metaphase II    

• C)*Anaphase I    

• D)*Anaphase II    

• *Answer:*D)*Anaphase II

59.Which scientist proposed the double helix model for DNA structure?  

• A)*Mendel    

• B)*Watson and Crick    

• C)*Franklin    

• D)*Hershey and Chase    

• *Answer:*B)*Watson and Crick

60.What kind of trait is expressed in both homozygous and heterozygous conditions?  

• A)*Recessive trait    

• B)*Dominant trait    

• C)*Codominant trait    

• D)*Incomplete dominant trait    

• *Answer:*B)*Dominant trait

61.How many pairs of autosomes do humans have?  

• A)*22    

• B)*23    

• C)*46    

• D)*44    

• *Answer:*A)*22

62.Which term describes a genetic makeup consisting of two different alleles for a given gene?  

• A)*Homozygous    

• B)*Heterozygous    

• C)*Hemizygous    

• D)*Polygenic    

• *Answer:*B)*Heterozygous

63.What happens during prophase I of meiosis that contributes to genetic diversity?  

• A)*Chromosomes align at the equatorial plane    

• B)*Homologous chromosomes pair and exchange segments (crossing over).    

• C)*Sister chromatids are separated    

• D)*Nuclear envelope reforms    

• *Answer:*B)*Homologous chromosomes pair and exchange segments (crossing over).

64.Which type of RNA makes up the majority of ribosomal RNA (rRNA)?  

• A)*mRNA    

• B)*tRNA    

• C)*rRNA    

• D)*snRNA    

• *Answer:*C)*rRNA

65.In humans, what does Turner syndrome result from?  

• A)*An extra Y chromosome    

• B)*An extra X chromosome    

• C)*Missing one X chromosome    

• D)*Trisomy 21    

• *Answer:*C)*Missing one X chromosome

66.The observable characteristics resulting from an organism's genotype are known as its... ?  

• A)*Genotype    

• B)*Phenotype    

• C)*Allele frequency    

• D)*Karyotype    

• *Answer:*B)*Phenotype

67.Which term refers to genes located close together on the same chromosome that tend to be inherited together?  

• A)*Linked genes    

• B)*Independent assortment    

• C)*Codominance    

• D)*Epistasis    

• *Answer:*A)*Linked genes

68.Which genetic disorder is caused by mutations in the CFTR gene?  

• A)*Sickle cell anemia    

• B)*Cystic fibrosis    

• C)*Huntington's disease    

• D)*Tay-Sachs disease    

• *Answer:*B)*Cystic fibrosis

69.Which type of inheritance pattern results in offspring with intermediate traits, such as pink flowers from red and white parents?  

• A)*Complete dominance    

• B)*Incomplete dominance    

• C)*Codominance    

• D)*Multiple alleles    

• *Answer:*B)*Incomplete dominance

70.During which stage do homologous chromosomes line up at the equator of the cell during meiosis?  

• A)*Prophase I    

• B)*Metaphase I    

• C)*Anaphase I    

• D)*Telophase I    

• *Answer:*B)*Metaphase I

71.What type of genetic testing can identify chromosomal abnormalities before birth?  

• A)*Amniocentesis    

• B)*PCR testing    

• C)*Gene sequencing    

• D)*Blood typing    

• *Answer:*A)*Amniocentesis

72.Which enzyme joins Okazaki fragments during DNA replication?  

• A)*Helicase    

• B)*Ligase    

• C)*DNA polymerase    

• D)*Primase    

• *Answer:*B)*Ligase

73.How many total chromosomes are present in human somatic cells after mitosis?  

• A)*23 pairs (46 total).     

• B)*22 pairs (44 total).     

• C)*24 pairs (48 total).     

• D)*20 pairs (40 total).     

• *Answer:*A)*23 pairs (46 total).     

74.What is an example of a monogenic trait in humans?
-A)*(Height)
-B)*(Eye color)
-C)*(Sickle cell anemia)
-D)*(Skin color)
-*Answer:*C)*(Sickle cell anemia)

75. What kind of mutation involves replacing one nucleotide with another?
-A)*(Deletion)
-B)*(Substitution)
-C)*(Insertion)
-D)*(Duplication)
-*Answer:*B)*(Substitution)

76. What type of inheritance pattern do ABO blood groups illustrate?
-A)*(Simple dominance)
-B)*(Codominance)
-C)*(Multiple alleles)
-D)*(All of the above)
-*Answer:*D)*(All of the above)

77. What is a pedigree chart used for?
-A)*(To track genetic disorders within families)
-B)*(To determine blood types)
-C)*(To analyze DNA sequences)
-D)*(To measure gene expression)
-*Answer:*A)*(To track genetic disorders within families)

78. Which technique involves amplifying small segments of DNA?
-A)*(Cloning)
-B)*(PCR)
-C)*(Gel electrophoresis)
-D)*(Sequencing)
-*Answer:*B)*(PCR)

79. What happens during anaphase I?
-A)*(Sister chromatids separate)
-B)*(Homologous chromosomes separate)
-C)*(Crossing over occurs)
-D)*(Nuclear envelope reforms)
-*Answer:*B)*(Homologous chromosomes separate)

80. What kind of genetic disorder results from an abnormal number of sex chromosomes?
-A)*(Autosomal recessive)
-B)*(Autosomal dominant)
-C)*(Sex-linked)
-D)*(Chromosomal abnormality)
-*Answer:*D)*(Chromosomal abnormality)

81. What does "hemizygous" refer to?
-A)*(Having two identical alleles)
-B)*(Having one allele instead of two)
-C)*(Having multiple alleles for one gene)
-D)*(Having no alleles at all)
-*Answer:*B)*(Having one allele instead of two)

82. Which type of RNA carries amino acids to ribosomes during protein synthesis?
-A)*(mRNA)
-B)*(tRNA)
-C)*(rRNA)
-D)*(snRNA)
-*Answer:*B)*(tRNA)

83. What kind of inheritance pattern do polygenic traits follow?
-A)*(Single gene influence)
-B)*(Multiple genes influence)
-C)*(X-linked influence)
-D)*(Mitochondrial influence)
-*Answer:*B)*(Multiple genes influence)

84. How many total gametes can be produced by an organism with genotype AaBb?
-A)*(2)
-B)*(4)
-C)*(8)
-D)*(16)
-*Answer:*B)*(4)

85. What type of genetic mapping identifies locations on chromosomes associated with specific traits?
-A)*(Linkage mapping)
-B)*(Physical mapping)
-C)*(Genetic mapping)
-D)*(Comparative mapping)
-*Answer:*A)*(Linkage mapping)

86. Which technique separates DNA fragments based on size?
-A)*(PCR)
-B)*(Gel electrophoresis)
-C)*(Cloning)
-D)*(Sequencing)
-*Answer:*B)*(Gel electrophoresis)

87. What kind of mutations can be caused by environmental factors such as radiation?
-A)*(Spontaneous mutations)
-B)*(Induced mutations)
-C)*(Silent mutations)
-D)*(Missense mutations)
-*Answer:*B)*(Induced mutations)

88. What does "incomplete dominance" mean?
-A)*(Both alleles are fully expressed.)
-B)*(One allele completely masks another.)
-C)*(The phenotype is a blend between two alleles.)
-D)*(Alleles are co-expressed.)
-*Answer:*C)*(The phenotype is a blend between two alleles.)

89. Which process leads to genetic variation among offspring?
-A*(Mitosis)
-B*(Meiosis)
-C*(Binary fission)
-D*(Cloning)
-*Answer:*B*(Meiosis)

90. What term describes genes that are located on different chromosomes?
-A*(Linked genes)
-B*(Independent assorting genes)
-C*(Homologous genes)
-D*(Allelic genes)
-*Answer:*B*(Independent assorting genes)

91. What type of inheritance pattern is observed when both alleles contribute equally to the phenotype?
-A*(Dominance)
-B*(Codominance)
-C*(Incomplete dominance)
-D*(Epistasis)
-*Answer:*B*(Codominance)

92. What does "genetic drift" refer to?
-A*(Changes in allele frequencies due to chance events.)
-B*(Changes due to natural selection.)
-C*(Changes due to migration.)
-D*(Changes due to mutation.)
-*Answer:*A*(Changes in allele frequencies due to chance events.)

93. What is the role of primase during DNA replication?
-A*(Synthesizes new DNA strands.)
-B*(Unwinds DNA helix.)
-C*(Adds RNA primers.)
-D*(Joins Okazaki fragments.)
-*Answer:*C*(Adds RNA primers.)

94. How many unique gametes can be formed by an individual with genotype AaBbCc?
-A*(4)
-B*(8)
-C*(16)
-D*(32)
-*Answer:*B*(8)

95. Which term describes an organism's complete set of genes?
-A*(Genotype)
-B*(Phenotype)
-C*(Genome)
-D*(Karyotype)
-*Answer:*C*(Genome)

96. Which process involves changing mRNA into functional proteins?
-A*(Transcription)
-B*(Translation)
-C*(Replication)
-D*(Splicing)
-*Answer:*B*(Translation)

97. What happens during metaphase II in meiosis?
-A*(Homologous chromosomes align at the equator.)
-B*(Sister chromatids align at the equator.)
-C*(Crossing over occurs.)
-D*(Nuclear envelope reforms.)
-*Answer:*B*(Sister chromatids align at the equator.)

98. What does "autosomal recessive" mean regarding inheritance?
-A*(The trait appears only when both alleles are recessive.)
-B*(The trait appears when only one allele is dominant.)
-C*(The trait appears regardless of allele combination.)
-D*(The trait appears primarily in males.)
-*Answer:*A*(The trait appears only when both alleles are recessive.)

99. What is "gene therapy" aimed at doing?
-A*(Changing phenotypes.)
-B*(Correcting defective genes.)
-C*(Enhancing genetic traits.)
-D*(Cloning organisms.)
-*Answer:*B*(Correcting defective genes.)

100. What term refers to variations in traits within a population?
-A*(Genetic diversity.)
-B*(Phenotypic plasticity.)
-C*(Natural selection.)
-D*(Genetic drift.)
-*Answer:*A*(Genetic diversity.)

Question 1:
What is thermoregulation?
* A: The process of maintaining a stable internal body temperature.
* B: The regulation of blood pressure.
* C: The control of muscle movement.
* D: The regulation of hormone production.
Question 2:
Which part of the brain is responsible for thermoregulation?
* A: Cerebellum
* B: Hypothalamus
* C: Medulla oblongata
* D: Pons
Question 3:
Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of heat loss from the body?
* A: Conduction
* B: Convection
* C: Radiation
* D: Vasoconstriction
Question 4:
What happens when the body temperature drops below the normal range?
* A: Shivering
* B: Sweating
* C: Vasodilation
* D: Decreased metabolic rate
Question 5:
How does sweating help to cool the body?
* A: By increasing blood flow to the skin
* B: By releasing heat through evaporation
* C: By reducing metabolic rate
* D: By constricting blood vessels
Question 6:
What is the normal human body temperature?
* A: 37°C (98.6°F)
* B: 38°C (100.4°F)
* C: 36°C (96.8°F)
* D: 39°C (102.2°F)
Question 7:
Which of the following animals are ectotherms?
* A: Birds
* B: Mammals
* C: Reptiles
* D: Fish
Question 8:
What is the difference between endotherms and ectotherms?
* A: Endotherms regulate their body temperature internally, while ectotherms rely on external sources of heat.
* B: Endotherms are warm-blooded, while ectotherms are cold-blooded.
* C: Endotherms have a higher metabolic rate than ectotherms.
* D: All of the above
Question 9:
How does fever help the body fight infection?
* A: By increasing the metabolic rate of immune cells
* B: By inhibiting the growth of bacteria and viruses
* C: By increasing blood flow to the infected area
* D: All of the above
Question 10:
What is hypothermia?
* A: A condition in which the body temperature is too high
* B: A condition in which the body temperature is too low
* C: A condition in which the body cannot regulate its temperature
* D: A condition in which the body produces too much heat
Answer Key:
* A
* B
* D
* A
* B
* A
* C
* D
* D
* B

35. Which statement about continuous reinforcement is true?
    a) It leads to rapid learning but also rapid extinction  
    b) It leads to slow learning but high resistance to extinction  
    c) It is more effective than partial reinforcement in all situations  
    d) None of the above  

36. An example of negative punishment would be:
     a ) Giving extra homework for not turning in assignments on time   
     b ) Taking away privileges when rules are broken   
     c ) Adding chores when misbehavior occurs   
     d ) Ignoring bad behavior   

37. When someone learns to associate specific cues with certain consequences, this process is known as:
     a ) Conditioning   
     b ) Discrimination   
     c ) Generalization   
     d ) Reinforcement   

38. Which type of learning involves observing and imitating others?
     a ) Operant conditioning   
     b ) Classical conditioning   
     c ) Observational learning   
     d ) Cognitive learning   

39. What does "satiation" refer to in the context of operant conditioning?
     a ) The state where an individual no longer responds to reinforcement   
     b ) The process of teaching new behaviors   
     c ) The effect of rewarding too frequently   
     d ) The gradual weakening of conditioned responses   

40. In which scenario would you expect spontaneous recovery to occur?
     a ) After extinction has taken place and then reinforcement is reintroduce or   
     b ) When new behaviors are learned   
     c ) When old behaviors are extinguished   
     d ) When reinforcement schedules are altered   

▎Answers

1. b

2. c

3. b

4. a

5. b

6. b

7. a

8. b

9. c

10. a

11. a

12. b

13. b

14. a

15. b

16. b

17. a

18. a

19. b

20. a

21. a

22. b

23. b

24. a

25. a

26. b

27. b

28. c

29. d

30. d

31. b

32. b

33. b

34. b

35. a

36. b

37. a

38. c

39. a

40. a

19. What kind of schedule is used when reinforcement is given after an unpredictable number of responses?
    a) Fixed interval 
    b) Variable ratio 
    c) Fixed ratio 
    d) Continuous 

20. Which type of punishment involves adding an unpleasant stimulus?
    a) Positive punishment 
    b) Negative punishment 
    c) Positive reinforcement 
    d) Negative reinforcement 

21. A teacher gives students stickers for every three homework assignments completed. This is an example of:
    a) Fixed ratio schedule 
    b) Variable interval schedule 
    c) Fixed interval schedule 
    d) Continuous reinforcement 

22. When a child learns to say "please" to receive candy, this is an example of:
    a) Positive punishment 
    b) Positive reinforcement 
    c) Negative punishment 
    d) Negative reinforcement 

23. What is the primary goal of operant conditioning?
    a) To understand reflexes 
    b) To modify behavior through consequences 
    c) To study emotional responses 
    d) To analyze cognitive processes 

24. Which of the following best describes "generalization" in operant conditioning?
    a) Learning to respond to similar stimuli in the same way  
    b) The process of eliminating unwanted behaviors  
    c) Differentiating between different stimuli  
    d) Learning through observation  

25. In which scenario would negative punishment be applied?
    a) A child loses TV privileges for misbehaving  
    b) A dog receives treats for obeying commands  
    c) A student gets extra credit for perfect attendance  
    d) A worker gets reprimanded for being late  

26. Which type of reinforcement occurs when an aversive stimulus is removed after a behavior occurs?
    a) Positive reinforcement  
    b) Negative reinforcement  
    c) Positive punishment  
    d) Negative punishment  

27. What does the term "conditioned reinforcer" refer to?
    a) A stimulus that naturally increases behavior  
    b) A learned reinforcer that gains its power through association  
    c) A punishment that decreases behavior  
    d) An unconditioned response  

28. What is the role of the "Skinner box" in operant conditioning research?
    a) To study classical conditioning  
    b) To measure reflexes  
    c) To observe voluntary behaviors and their consequences  
    d) To analyze cognitive processes  

29. What is an example of variable interval reinforcement?
    a) Receiving an allowance every week  
    b) Winning on a slot machine after an unpredictable number of plays  
    c) Getting paid after completing every project  
    d) Being praised for good behavior at random times  

30. Which scenario illustrates positive punishment?
    a) A child receives extra chores for misbehaving  
    b) A student loses recess time for not completing homework  
    c) A dog gets shocked for barking excessively  
    d) All of the above  

31. The process of reinforcing successive approximations toward a desired behavior is known as:
    a) Generalization  
    b) Shaping  
    c) Extinction  
    d) Discrimination  

32. In operant conditioning, what does "primary reinforcer" refer to?
    a) A stimulus that acquires its reinforcing properties through learning  
    b) A naturally occurring stimulus that satisfies biological needs  
    c) Any stimulus that reinforces behavior  
    d) A consequence that punishes behavior  

33. What role does feedback play in operant conditioning?
    a) It has no role  
    b) It helps individuals understand the consequences of their actions  
    c) It only applies to classical conditioning  
    d) It confuses the learning process  

34. If an animal learns to press a lever to receive food, this behavior is maintained by:
    a) Punishment  
    b) Reinforcement  
    c) Extinction  
    d) Shaping

1. Who is considered the father of operant conditioning?
   a) Ivan Pavlov 
   b) B.F. Skinner 
   c) John Watson 
   d) Albert Bandura 

2. What is operant conditioning primarily concerned with?
   a) Classical responses 
   b) Reflexes 
   c) Voluntary behaviors 
   d) Involuntary responses 

3. Which of the following is an example of positive reinforcement?
   a) Removing a chore 
   b) Giving a child a cookie for doing homework 
   c) Taking away privileges 
   d) Ignoring bad behavior 

4. What is the term for a stimulus that increases the likelihood of a behavior?
   a) Reinforcer 
   b) Punisher 
   c) Neutral stimulus 
   d) Conditioned stimulus 

5. In operant conditioning, what does punishment aim to do?
   a) Increase behavior 
   b) Decrease behavior 
   c) Maintain behavior 
   d) Reinforce behavior 

6. What type of reinforcement schedule provides reinforcement after a specific number of responses?
   a) Variable interval 
   b) Fixed ratio 
   c) Variable ratio 
   d) Fixed interval 

7. What is an example of negative reinforcement?
   a) A student studies hard to avoid failing a test 
   b) A dog sits to receive a treat 
   c) A child is scolded for misbehaving 
   d) A worker receives a bonus for good performance 

8. Which of the following is NOT a type of operant conditioning?
   a) Positive reinforcement 
   b) Classical conditioning 
   c) Negative reinforcement 
   d) Punishment 

9. Which schedule of reinforcement is known for producing high rates of response?
   a) Fixed interval 
   b) Variable ratio 
   c) Fixed ratio 
   d) Continuous 

10. In operant conditioning, what does "shaping" refer to?
    a) Gradually reinforcing closer approximations to the desired behavior 
    b) Punishing undesirable behaviors 
    c) Teaching through observation 
    d) Conditioning emotional responses 

11. What is the main difference between positive and negative reinforcement?
    a) Positive reinforcement adds a stimulus; negative reinforcement removes one 
    b) Positive reinforcement is always better than negative reinforcement 
    c) Negative reinforcement is illegal; positive is not 
    d) There is no difference 

12. Which of the following would be an example of punishment?
    a) Giving a reward for good grades 
    b) Taking away video game privileges for poor grades 
    c) Allowing extra recess time for good behavior 
    d) Providing praise for finishing chores 

13. What type of reinforcement schedule provides reinforcement at unpredictable times?
    a) Fixed interval 
    b) Variable interval 
    c) Fixed ratio 
    d) Continuous 

14. What term describes the weakening of a behavior when reinforcement is removed?
    a) Extinction 
    b) Generalization 
    c) Discrimination 
    d) Shaping 

15. Which of the following best describes "extinction" in operant conditioning?
    a) Strengthening a response by removing an aversive stimulus 
    b) The gradual decrease in response when reinforcement is no longer provided 
    c) Increasing behavior through rewards 
    d) Learning by observing others 

16. An example of fixed interval reinforcement would be:
    a) A child receives a toy after every five correct answers on a quiz 
    b) A worker gets paid every two weeks 
    c) A slot machine pays out after an unpredictable number of plays 
    d) A dog receives treats after every time it sits on command 

17. What does "discrimination" mean in operant conditioning?
    a) Responding differently to similar stimuli 
    b) Generalizing responses to all stimuli 
    c) The elimination of responses over time 
    d) Learning through imitation 

18. Which of the following scenarios illustrates the use of shaping?
    a) Teaching a dog to roll over by rewarding it for lying down first

b) Giving candy for good grades 
    c) Taking away dessert for not finishing dinner 
    d) Ignoring unwanted behavior 

99. ***Which statement regarding zymogens is TRUE?
          (A)(Zymogens are always active immediately)
          (B)(Zymogens require cleavage for activation)
          (C)(Zymogens have no biological function)
          (D)(Zymogens are not influenced by pH)
          Answer:(B)(Zymogens require cleavage for activation)

100. ***Why might cells utilize feedback mechanisms involving enzymes?
           (A)(To ensure continuous production)
           (B)(To regulate metabolic pathways efficiently)
           (C)(To eliminate waste products exclusively)
           (D)(To promote uncontrolled growth)
           Answer:(B)(To regulate metabolic pathways efficiently)

32. Which type of enzymatic reaction involves the addition or removal of water?
     – A) Hydrolysis
     – B) Oxidation
     – C) Reduction
     – D) Phosphorylation 
     Answer: A) Hydrolysis

33. What kind of bond stabilizes the active site structure in enzymes?
     – A) Ionic bonds
     – B) Hydrogen bonds
     – C) Disulfide bridges
     – D) All types of bonds mentioned 
     Answer: D) All types of bonds mentioned

34.  What would happen if an enzyme's active site were altered?
     – A) The enzyme would work faster
     – B) The enzyme would lose its ability to bind with its substrate
     – C) The substrate would bind more easily
     – D) Nothing would happen  
     Answer: B) The enzyme would lose its ability to bind with its substrate

35.  Which term describes a substance that increases the rate of a reaction without being consumed?
     – A) Catalyst
     – B) Inhibitor
     – C) Substrate
     – D) Product  
     Answer: A) Catalyst

36.  Which type of enzyme catalyzes the transfer of phosphate groups?
     – A) Kinase
     – B) Phosphatase
     – C) Ligase
     – D) Hydrolase  
     Answer: A) Kinase

37.  Which statement about enzymes and substrates is FALSE?
     – A) Enzymes can bind multiple substrates simultaneously
     – B) Substrates fit into enzymes like a key fits into a lock
     – C) Enzymes are specific for their substrates
     – D) The binding occurs at the active site  
     Answer: A) Enzymes can bind multiple substrates simultaneously

38.  In enzymatic reactions, what does 'activation energy' refer to?
     – A) Energy required to initiate a chemical reaction
     – B) Energy produced during a reaction
     – C) Energy needed to break down products
     – D) Energy stored in substrates  
     Answer: A) Energy required to initiate a chemical reaction

39.  What type of protein is an enzyme considered?
     – A) Structural protein
     – B) Transport protein
     – C) Functional protein
     – D) Storage protein  
     Answer: C) Functional protein

40.  Which condition could potentially lead to irreversible inhibition?
     – A) Competitive inhibition
     – B) Non-competitive inhibition
     – C) Covalent modification
     – D) Allosteric regulation  
     Answer: C) Covalent modification

41.  What is feedback inhibition?
     – A) When an end product inhibits an earlier step in a metabolic pathway
     – B) When an enzyme's activity increases due to product accumulation
     – C) When substrates compete for active sites on enzymes
     – D) None of the above  
     Answer: A) When an end product inhibits an earlier step in a metabolic pathway

42.  Which statement about allosteric enzymes is TRUE?
     – A) They exhibit hyperbolic kinetics similar to Michaelis-Menten enzymes
     – B) They can exist in multiple conformations affecting their activity
     – C) Their activity cannot be regulated by other molecules
     – D) They only have one active site available for binding substrates  
     Answer: B) They can exist in multiple conformations affecting their activity

43.  How do temperature changes generally affect enzymatic reactions?
     – A) Increase activity at all temperatures
     – B) Decrease activity at all temperatures
     – C) Increase activity up to an optimal temperature, then decrease it

– D) Have no effect on activity whatsoever  
     Answer: C) Increase activity up to an optimal temperature, then decrease it

44.  What happens when an enzyme reaches its optimum pH level?
     – A) It becomes inactive
     – B) It works at maximum efficiency
     – C) It denatures immediately
     – D) It starts producing excess heat  
     Answer: B) It works at maximum efficiency

45.  Enzymes that catalyze oxidation-reduction reactions are known as:
      – A) Oxidoreductases
      – B) Transferases
      – C) Hydrolases
      – D) Ligases
      Answer: A) Oxidoreductases

18. What is the role of allosteric sites in enzymes?

    • A) They bind substrates directly.

    • B) They modify enzyme activity through binding of regulators.

    • C) They provide structural support.

    • D) They store energy. 
    Answer: B) They modify enzyme activity through binding of regulators.

19. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding enzyme specificity?

    • A) Enzymes can act on any substrate.

    • B) Enzymes have a specific active site that fits only certain substrates.

    • C) Enzymes can change shape to fit any substrate.

    • D) Enzymes are only specific to one type of reaction. 
    Answer: B) Enzymes have a specific active site that fits only certain substrates.

20. Which of the following factors does NOT typically affect enzyme activity?

    • A) Temperature

    • B) pH level

    • C) Concentration of product

    • D) Color of the enzyme 
    Answer: D) Color of the enzyme

21. What is the term for the maximum rate of reaction achieved by an enzyme at saturation?

    • A) Km (Michaelis constant)

    • B) Vmax (maximum velocity)

    • C) Turnover number

    • D) Activation energy 
    Answer: B) Vmax (maximum velocity)

22. Which type of enzyme regulation involves a molecule binding to a site other than the active site?

    • A) Competitive inhibition

    • B) Non-competitive inhibition

    • C) Feedback inhibition

    • D) Allosteric regulation 
    Answer: D) Allosteric regulation

23. The term "turnover number" refers to:

    • A) The time taken for an enzyme to denature.

    • B) The number of substrate molecules converted to product per enzyme molecule per unit time.

    • C) The total number of substrates that can bind to an enzyme at once.

    • D) The amount of product formed in a reaction. 
    Answer: B) The number of substrate molecules converted to product per enzyme molecule per unit time.

24. Which type of enzyme requires metal ions for its activity?

    • A) Coenzymes

    • B) Holoenzymes

    • C) Apoenzymes

    • D) Metalloproteins 
    Answer: D) Metalloproteins

25. Enzyme-catalyzed reactions follow which kind of kinetics at low substrate concentrations?

    • A) Zero-order kinetics

    • B) First-order kinetics

    • C) Second-order kinetics

    • D) Michaelis-Menten kinetics 
    Answer: B) First-order kinetics

26. What does Km represent in enzyme kinetics?

    • A) The maximum rate at which an enzyme can convert substrates to products.

    • B) The substrate concentration at which the reaction rate is half of Vmax.

    • C) The total amount of substrate available.

    • D) The amount of product formed in a reaction. 
    Answer: B) The substrate concentration at which the reaction rate is half of Vmax.

27. Which type of inhibitor binds to an enzyme regardless of whether the substrate is present?

    • A) Competitive inhibitor

    • B) Non-competitive inhibitor

    • C) Uncompetitive inhibitor

    • D) Allosteric inhibitor 
    Answer: B) Non-competitive inhibitor

28. Which statement about enzymes is TRUE?

    • A) Enzymes are permanently altered after a reaction.

    • B) Enzymes can catalyze multiple different reactions.

    • C) Enzymes can only function in aqueous environments.

    • D) Enzymes speed up reactions without being consumed. 
    Answer: D) Enzymes speed up reactions without being consumed.

29. Which process describes the conversion of an inactive precursor into an active enzyme?

    • A) Feedback inhibition

    • B) Zymogen activation

    • C) Competitive inhibition

• D) Allosteric regulation 
    Answer: B) Zymogen activation

30. What is a common method for measuring enzyme activity in vitro?

    • A) Spectrophotometry

    • B) Chromatography

    • C) Electrophoresis

    • D) Centrifugation 
    Answer: A) Spectrophotometry

31. Which factor can lead to enzyme denaturation?

    • A) Extreme pH levels

    • B) High temperatures

    • C) Heavy metal ions

    • D) All of the above 
    Answer: D) All of the above

74. ***An example where feedback inhibition occurs is seen in:*
        *(A)*(Glycolysis).*
        *(B)*(Citric acid cycle).*  
        *(C)*(Fatty acid synthesis).*  
        *(D)*(All metabolic pathways).*   
        Answer: *(D)*(All metabolic pathways).*

75. ***How do competitive inhibitors affect Km values?*
        *(A)*(Increase Km).*   
        *(B)*(Decrease Km).*   
        *(C)*(No effect on Km).*   
        *(D)*(Variable effect on Km).*   
        Answer: *(A)*(Increase Km).*

76. ***Enzyme cofactors may include which ions?*
        *(A)*(Magnesium.)*   
        *(B)*(Zinc.)*   
        *(C)*(Iron.)*   
        *(D)*(All mentioned.)*   
        Answer: *(D)*(All mentioned.)*

77. ***What happens when you increase substrate concentration beyond Km?*
        *(A)*(Reaction rate decreases.)*   
        *(B)*(Reaction rate remains constant.)*   
        *(C)*(Reaction rate increases linearly.)*   
        *(D)*(Reaction stops completely.)*   
        Answer: *(B)*(Reaction rate remains constant.)*

78. ***Enzyme catalysis involves which transition state theory concept?*
        *(A)*(Formation of intermediates.)*   
        *(B)*(Stabilization by lowering activation energy.)*   
        *(C)*(Equilibrium state.)*   
        *(D)*(None mentioned.)*   
        Answer: *(B)*(Stabilization by lowering activation energy.)*

79. ***An example where temperature affects enzymatic action negatively is found in:*
        *(A)*(Cold-blooded animals.)*   
        *(B)*(Fever conditions.)*   
        *(C)*(Extreme heat conditions.)*   
        *(D)*(Normal physiological conditions.)*   
        Answer: *(C)*(Extreme heat conditions.)*

80. ***Why might enzymes be immobilized in industrial applications?*
        *(A)*(To increase stability.)*   
        *(B)*(To facilitate reuse.)*   
        *(C)*(To enhance control over reaction conditions.)*   
        *(D)*(All mentioned.)*   
        Answer: *(D)*(All mentioned.)*

81. ***If an enzyme's structure changes due to environmental conditions, what does this lead to?*
        *(A)*(Increased efficiency.)*   
        *(B)*(Denaturation.)*   
        *(C)*(Enhanced affinity for substrates.)*   
        *(D)*(No change in function.)*   
        Answer: *(B)*(Denaturation.)*

82. ***Which type of inhibition might be reversed by increasing substrate concentration?*

*(A)*(Competitive inhibition.)*   
        *(B)*(Non-competitive inhibition.)*   
        *(C)*(Irreversible inhibition.)*   
        *(D)*(Feedback inhibition.)*   
        Answer: *(A)*(Competitive inhibition.)*

83. ***Enzyme specificity results from what feature?*
        *(A)*(Active site shape.)*   
        *(B)*(Temperature sensitivity.)*   
        *(C)*(pH stability range.)*   
        *(D)*(Molecular weight.)*   
        Answer: *(A)*(Active site shape.)*

84. ***What does it mean if an enzyme has high turnover number (kcat)?*
        *(A)*(It converts many substrate molecules into products quickly.)*   
        *(B)*(It has low affinity for its substrate.)*   
        *(C)*(It operates under low temperatures effectively.)*   
        *(D)*(It requires many cofactors for activation.)*   
        Answer: *(A)*(It converts many substrate molecules into products quickly.)*

85. ***How do allosteric activators influence enzymatic activity?*
        *(A)*(They decrease Vmax.)*   
        *(B)*(They stabilize active form and increase activity.)*   
        *(C)*(They prevent substrate binding.)*   
        *(D)*(They lead to irreversible inhibition.)*   
        Answer: *(B)*(They stabilize active form and increase activity.)*

86. ***An example where coenzymes play critical roles includes:*
         (A)(Vitamin-derived cofactors like NADH.)
         (B)(Metal ions like Mg²⁺.)
         (C)(Proteins.)
         (D)(Carbohydrates.)
         Answer:(A)(Vitamin-derived cofactors like NADH.)

87. ***How does pH affect enzymatic reactions typically?*
         (A)(Only extreme pH values have effects.)
         (B)(Each enzyme has optimal pH range.)
         (C)(Higher pH always increases activity.)
         (D)(Acidic environments always denature proteins.)
         Answer:(B)(Each enzyme has optimal pH range.)

88. ***How do lyases differ from hydrolases in function?
         (A)(Lyases add water; hydrolases remove water.)
         (B)(Lyases break bonds without water; hydrolases use water.)
         (C)(Lyases transfer electrons; hydrolases do not.)
         (D)(Lyases require ATP; hydrolases do not.)
         Answer:(B)(Lyases break bonds without water; hydrolases use water.)

89. ***Which term describes how enzymes lower activation energy?
         (A)(Transition state stabilization.)
         (B)(Substrate concentration increase.)
         (C)(Heat addition.)
         (D)(Product formation.)
         Answer:(A)(Transition state stabilization.)

90. ***Enzymatic assays measure what aspect?
         (A)(Concentration levels only.)
         (B)(Activity or efficiency.)
         (C)(Structural integrity.)
         (D)(Genetic expression levels.)
         Answer:(B)(Activity or efficiency.)

91. ***What role do serine proteases play?
         (A)(They oxidize compounds.)
         (B)(They cleave peptide bonds.)
         (C)(They phosphorylate proteins.)
         (D)(They synthesize nucleotides.)
         Answer:(B)(They cleave peptide bonds.)

92. ***Why might temperature changes lead to altered enzymatic behavior?
         (A)(Temperature affects molecular motion and interactions.)
         (B)(Temperature does not influence enzymatic function.)
         (C)(Temperature changes only impact product formation.)
         (D)(Temperature increases always enhance stability.)
         Answer:(A)(Temperature affects molecular motion and interactions.)

93. ***How do reversible inhibitors differ from irreversible inhibitors?
         (A)(Reversible inhibitors bind covalently; irreversible do not.)
         (B)(Reversible inhibitors can dissociate; irreversible cannot.)

(C)(Reversible inhibitors increase Vmax; irreversible decrease it.)
         (D)(Reversible inhibitors affect Km; irreversible do not affect Km.)
         Answer:(B)(Reversible inhibitors can dissociate; irreversible cannot.)

94. ***Which class includes enzymes that catalyze molecular rearrangements?
         (A)(Transferases)
         (B)(Isomerases)
         (C)(Lyases)
         (D)(Hydrolases)
         Answer:(B)(Isomerases)

95. ***How does competitive inhibition affect Vmax?
         (A)(Vmax remains unchanged.)
         (B)(Vmax increases significantly.)
         (C)(Vmax decreases significantly.)
         (D)(Vmax becomes undefined.)
         Answer:(A)(Vmax remains unchanged.)

96. ***Which factor typically enhances enzymatic reactions?
         (A)(Increased product concentration)
         (B)(Higher temperature within limits)
         (C)(Extreme pH values)
         (D)(Excessive heavy metals)
         Answer:(B)(Higher temperature within limits)

97. ***In metabolic pathways, what role do enzymes serve?
         (A)(They act as storage units)
         (B)(They facilitate and regulate biochemical transformations)
         (C)(They serve as structural components)
         (D)(They provide energy directly)
          Answer:(B)(They facilitate and regulate biochemical transformations)

98. ***When discussing enzymes, what does "specificity" refer to?
          (A)(The ability to act on multiple substrates)
          (B)(The ability to catalyze only one specific reaction)
          (C)(The ability to change shape upon binding)
          (D)(The ability to remain stable under varying conditions)
          Answer:(B)(The ability to catalyze only one specific reaction)

46.  Which process involves adding functional groups to substrates through enzymatic action?
      – A) Hydrolysis
      – B) Phosphorylation
      – C) Dephosphorylation
      – D) Condensation
      Answer: B) Phosphorylation

47.  Which class of enzymes joins two molecules together with covalent bonds while removing water?
      – A) Hydrolases
      – B) Ligases
      – C) Isomerases
      – D) Lyases
      Answer: B) Ligases

48.  The concept that enzymes are highly specific for their substrates is known as:
      – A) Induced fit model
      – B) Lock and key model
      – C) Active site specificity
      – D) Substrate specificity
      Answer: B) Lock and key model

49.  In what form do many enzymes exist before activation?
      – A) Active form
      – B)** Inactive form (zymogen or proenzyme form)
      – C) Denatured form
      – D) Catalytically inactive form
      Answer: B)** Inactive form (zymogen or proenzyme form)

50.  Which type of bond is primarily responsible for maintaining the three-dimensional structure of proteins, including enzymes?
      – A) Ionic bonds
      – B) Hydrogen bonds
      – C) Disulfide bonds
      – D) All types mentioned contribute to stability
      Answer: D)** All types mentioned contribute to stability

51.  The initial concentration of substrate required for a significant increase in reaction velocity is referred to as:
      – A)*Vmax*
      – B)*Km*
      – C)*Turnover number*
      – D)*Saturation point*
      *Answer:* B)*Km*

52.  ***Enzyme specificity* refers to:*
      *A)*The ability to catalyze any reaction.*
      *B)*The ability to bind only certain substrates.*
      *C)*The ability to function under various conditions.*
      *D)*The ability to undergo denaturation.*
      *Answer:* *B)*The ability to bind only certain substrates.*

53.  ***Apoenzyme* refers to:*
      *A)*An inactive form without cofactors.*
      *B)*An active form with cofactors.*
      *C)*A cofactor itself.*
      *D)*A product formed after enzymatic action.*
      *Answer:* *A)*An inactive form without cofactors.*

54.  ***Cofactors* are:*
      *A)*Organic molecules required by some enzymes.*
      *B)*Inorganic ions required by some enzymes.*
      *C)*Both organic and inorganic molecules.*
      *D)*None of the above.*
      *Answer:* *C)*Both organic and inorganic molecules.*

55.  ***Isoenzymes* are:*
      *A)*Different forms of an enzyme that catalyze the same reaction.*
      *B)*Enzymes that function at different temperatures.*
      *C)*Enzymes that require different cofactors.*
      *D)*Inactive forms of enzymes.*
      *Answer:* *A)*Different forms of an enzyme that catalyze the same reaction.*

56.  ***Enzyme kinetics* studies:*
      *A)*The structure and function of enzymes.*
      *B)*The rates at which enzymatic reactions occur.*
      *C)*The effects of temperature on enzymes.*
      *D)*The genetic regulation of enzymes.*
      *Answer:* *B)*The rates at which enzymatic reactions occur.*

57.  ***Competitive inhibitors* typically resemble:*
      *A)*The product.*
      *B)*The substrate.*
      *C)*The cofactor.*

*D)*The allosteric regulator.*
      *Answer:* *B)*The substrate.*

58.  ***Non-competitive inhibitors* affect an enzyme by:*
      *A)*Binding only to the active site.*
      *B)*Binding to both free and substrate-bound forms.*
      *C)*Increasing Vmax.*
      *D)*Decreasing Km.*
      *Answer:* *B)*Binding to both free and substrate-bound forms.*

59.  ***Enzyme denaturation* can result from:*
      *A)*Changes in pH or temperature.*
      *B)*Exposure to heavy metals.*
      *C)*Allosteric regulation.*
      *D)*Both A and B.*
      *Answer:* *D)*Both A and B.*

60.  ***Vmax* represents:*
       *A)*The maximum concentration of substrate.*
       *B)*The maximum velocity achieved by an enzyme at saturation.*
       *C)*The minimum velocity achieved by an enzyme.*
       *D)*The concentration at which half-maximal velocity occurs.*
       *Answer:* *B)*The maximum velocity achieved by an enzyme at saturation.*

61.  ***Proenzymes* are also known as:*
       *A)*Active enzymes.*
       *B)*Zymogens.*
       *C)*Cofactors.*
       *D)*Substrates.*
       *Answer:* *B)*Zymogens.*

62.  ***Lyases* are enzymes that:*
       *A)*Catalyze hydrolysis reactions.*
       *B)*Catalyze addition or removal of groups without hydrolysis.*
       *C)*Transfer functional groups between molecules.*
       *D)*Catalyze oxidation-reduction reactions.*
       *Answer:* *B)*Catalyze addition or removal of groups without hydrolysis.*

63.  ***Hydrolases* are involved in:*
       *A)*Oxidation-reduction reactions.*
       *B)*Breaking down molecules using water.*
       *C)*Joining two molecules together.*
       *D)*Transferring phosphate groups.*
       *Answer:* *B)*Breaking down molecules using water.*

64.  ***Ligases* are responsible for:*
       *A)*Breaking bonds using water.*
       *B)*Joining two molecules together while consuming ATP.*
       *C)*Transferring functional groups between substrates.*
       *D)*Catalyzing redox reactions.*
       *Answer:* *B)*Joining two molecules together while consuming ATP.*

65.  ***Isomerases* catalyze:*
       *A)*Reactions that involve rearranging atoms within a molecule.*
       *B)*Reactions involving addition or removal of water.*
       *C)*Reactions involving oxidation-reduction processes.*
       *D)*Reactions involving bond formation using ATP.*
       *Answer:* *A)*Reactions that involve rearranging atoms within a molecule.*

66.  ***Activation energy* is defined as:*
       *A)*Energy released during a reaction.*
       *B)*Energy required to start a chemical reaction.*
       *C)*Energy stored in products.*
       *D)*Energy needed for denaturation.*
       *Answer:* *B)*Energy required to start a chemical reaction.*

67.  ***Enzyme-substrate complexes* are formed when:*
       *A)*Enzyme and substrate are separated.*
       *B)*Enzyme and substrate interact at the active site.*
       *C)*Substrates leave the active site.*
       *D)*Products bind to the active site.*
       *Answer:* *B)*Enzyme and substrate interact at the active site.*

68.  ***Covalent modification* refers to:*
       *A)*Changes in temperature affecting enzyme activity.*
       *B)*Addition or removal of functional groups affecting enzyme activity.*
       *C)*Physical changes in enzyme shape.*
       *D)*None of the above.*
       *Answer:* *B)*Addition or removal of functional groups affecting enzyme activity.*

69.  ***Allosteric sites* on enzymes allow for:*
       *A)*Direct binding with substrates.*
       *B)*Regulation by molecules other than substrates.*
       *C)*Formation of covalent bonds.*
       *D)*None of the above.*

*Answer:* *B)*Regulation by molecules other than substrates.*

70.  ***End-product inhibition* serves as a mechanism for:*
       *A)*Increasing product formation.*
       *B)*Regulating metabolic pathways.*
       *C)*Decreasing substrate availability.*
       *D)*None of the above.*
       *Answer:* *B)*Regulating metabolic pathways.*

71.  ***Enzyme assays* are used for:*
       *A)*Measuring protein concentration.*
       *B)*Determining enzyme activity.*
       *C)*Identifying substrates.*
       *D)*All of the above.*
       *Answer:* *B)*Determining enzyme activity.*

72.  ***Temperature sensitivity* in enzymes usually results in:*
       *A)*(No effect on activity).*
       *(B)*(Increased activity with increased temperature up until denaturation).*
       *(C)*(Increased stability with increased temperature).*
       *(D)*(All reactions being equally affected).* 
        Answer: *(B)*(Increased activity with increased temperature up until denaturation).*

73. ***An example of an allosteric effector is:*
        *(A)*(ATP).*
        *(B)*(Glucose).*
        *(C)*(NADH).*
        *(D)*(Water).* 
        Answer: *(A)*(ATP).*

1. What are enzymes?

   • A) Carbohydrates

   • B) Proteins

   • C) Lipids

   • D) Nucleic acids 
   Answer: B) Proteins

2. What is the primary function of enzymes?

   • A) Store energy

   • B) Speed up chemical reactions

   • C) Provide structural support

   • D) Transport molecules 
   Answer: B) Speed up chemical reactions

3. What is the term for the substance an enzyme acts upon?

   • A) Product

   • B) Substrate

   • C) Catalyst

   • D) Inhibitor 
   Answer: B) Substrate

4. What part of the enzyme binds to the substrate?

   • A) Active site

   • B) Inhibitor site

   • C) Allosteric site

   • D) Binding site 
   Answer: A) Active site

5. Which of the following factors can affect enzyme activity?

   • A) Temperature

   • B) pH

   • C) Concentration of substrate

   • D) All of the above 
   Answer: D) All of the above

6. What is a coenzyme?

   • A) A type of enzyme

   • B) A non-protein molecule that assists enzymes

   • C) A substrate for enzymes

   • D) An inhibitor of enzymes 
   Answer: B) A non-protein molecule that assists enzymes

7. Enzymes that break down proteins are called:

   • A) Lipases

   • B) Amylases

   • C) Proteases

   • D) Nucleases 
   Answer: C) Proteases

8. The region where a substrate binds to an enzyme is known as:

   • A) Active site

   • B) Allosteric site

   • C) Inhibitory site

   • D) Regulatory site 
   Answer: A) Active site

9. Enzymes are classified based on:

   • A) Their size

   • B) Their structure

   • C) The type of reaction they catalyze

   • D) Their color 
   Answer: C) The type of reaction they catalyze

10. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of enzymes?

    • A) They are specific to substrates.

    • B) They can be used multiple times.

    • C) They increase activation energy.

    • D) They lower activation energy. 
    Answer: C) They increase activation energy.

11. What is an enzyme inhibitor?

    • A) A molecule that increases enzyme activity

    • B) A molecule that decreases enzyme activity

    • C) A substrate that binds to the active site

    • D) A product of an enzymatic reaction 
    Answer: B) A molecule that decreases enzyme activity

12. Which type of inhibition occurs when an inhibitor binds to the active site?

    • A) Competitive inhibition

    • B) Non-competitive inhibition

    • C) Uncompetitive inhibition

    • D) Allosteric inhibition 
    Answer: A) Competitive inhibition

13. What is the effect of temperature on enzyme activity?

    • A) It always increases activity.

    • B) It has no effect.

    • C) It can increase activity until a certain point, then decrease it.

    • D) It always decreases activity. 
    Answer: C) It can increase activity until a certain point, then decrease it.

14. Which of the following is true about enzymes?

    • A) They are consumed in reactions.

    • B) They change the equilibrium of a reaction.

    • C) They lower the activation energy required for a reaction.

    • D) They are not affected by pH. 
    Answer: C) They lower the activation energy required for a reaction.

15. What happens to an enzyme when it is denatured?

    • A) It becomes more active.

    • B) Its structure is altered, and it loses function.

    • C) It increases its substrate affinity.

    • D) It becomes more stable. 
    Answer: B) Its structure is altered, and it loses function.

16. Which statement about enzymes is FALSE?

    • A) Enzymes can be affected by inhibitors.

    • B) Enzymes can catalyze reactions in both directions.

    • C) Enzymes are made up of nucleic acids.

    • D) Enzymes are specific to their substrates. 
    Answer: C) Enzymes are made up of nucleic acids.

17. The Michaelis-Menten equation describes:

    • A) The effect of temperature on enzymes.

    • B) The relationship between substrate concentration and reaction rate.

    • C) The structure of enzymes.

    • D) The process of enzyme denaturation. 
    Answer: B) The relationship between substrate concentration and reaction rate.

35. Which scientist is considered one of the first to propose a system for naming organisms based on their characteristics?
     A ) Anton van Leeuwenhoek    
     B ) Carl Linnaeus    
     C ) Charles Darwin    
     D ) Gregor Mendel    
     Answer: B ) Carl Linnaeus    

36. The theory that all species have descended from common ancestors is central to which scientific concept?
     A ) Genetics    
     B ) Evolution    
     C ) Ecology    
     D ) Biochemistry    
     Answer: B ) Evolution    

37. The work of Galen influenced medicine for many centuries until it was challenged by:
     A ) Andreas Vesalius    
     B ) Hippocrates    
     C ) William Harvey    
     D ) Edward Jenner    
     Answer: A ) Andreas Vesalius    

38. Who proposed that traits are inherited through discrete units (now known as genes)?
      A ) Charles Darwin     
      B ) Gregor Mendel     
      C ) Louis Pasteur     
      D ) Francis Crick     
      Answer: B ) Gregor Mendel     

39. Which scientist’s work was pivotal in understanding the immune response to disease?
      A ) Louis Pasteur     
      B ) Edward Jenner     
      C ) Robert Koch     
      D ) Anton van Leeuwenhoek     
      Answer: A ) Louis Pasteur     

40. The study of organisms' interactions with one another and their environment is called:
      A ) Ecology     
      B ) Evolution     
      C ) Genetics     
      D ) Taxonomy     
      Answer: A ) Ecology     

19. Anton van Leeuwenhoek is often referred to as the "father of":
    A) Genetics  
    B) Microbiology  
    C) Anatomy  
    D) Botany  
    Answer: B) Microbiology  

20. What did Anton van Leeuwenhoek famously use to observe microorganisms?
    A) Compound microscope  
    B) Simple microscope  
    C) Electron microscope  
    D) Telescope   
    Answer: B) Simple microscope  

21. Van Leeuwenhoek was the first to describe which type of microorganisms?
    A) Fungi  
    B) Viruses  
    C) Protozoa  
    D) Algae   
    Answer: C) Protozoa  

▎Carl Linnaeus

22. Carl Linnaeus is best known for developing:
    A) The theory of evolution  
    B) The classification system for organisms  
    C) The concept of natural selection  
    D) The germ theory of disease   
    Answer: B) The classification system for organisms  

23. What is the binomial nomenclature system?
    A) A method for classifying plants based on their habitat  
    B) A two-part naming system for species  
    C) A method for categorizing diseases  
    D) A classification system for minerals   
    Answer: B) A two-part naming system for species  

24. In what year did Carl Linnaeus publish "Systema Naturae"?
    A) 1735  
    B) 1753  
    C) 1776  
    D) 1800   
    Answer: A) 1735  

▎General Questions

25. Which scientist is known for his work on the theory of evolution?
    A) Anton van Leeuwenhoek  
    B) Charles Darwin  
    C) Galen  
    D) Carl Linnaeus   
    Answer: B) Charles Darwin  

26. Who developed a method to classify living organisms based on shared characteristics?
    A) Watson and Crick  
    B) Anton van Leeuwenhoek  
    C) Carl Linnaeus   
    D) Gebisa Ejeta   
    Answer: C) Carl Linnaeus   

27. Which scientist's work laid the foundation for modern genetics?
    A) James Watson  
    B) Francis Crick   
    C) Gregor Mendel   
    D) Charles Darwin   
    Answer: C) Gregor Mendel   

28. Galen's medical theories were based largely on:
     A ) Empirical observation    
     B ) Animal dissections    
     C ) Herbal remedies    
     D ) Astrology    
     Answer: B ) Animal dissections    

29. Which scientist is credited with the discovery of the circulation of blood?
     A ) Charles Darwin    
     B ) William Harvey    
     C ) Anton van Leeuwenhoek    
     D ) Galen    
     Answer: B ) William Harvey    

30. The concept of "survival of the fittest" is most closely associated with which scientist?
     A ) Anton van Leeuwenhoek    
     B ) Charles Darwin    
     C ) Gregor Mendel    
     D ) Carl Linnaeus    
     Answer: B ) Charles Darwin    

31. Which scientist is known for his work with the microscope and observing bacteria?
     A ) Carl Linnaeus    
     B ) Anton van Leeuwenhoek    
     C ) Louis Pasteur    
     D ) Francis Crick    
     Answer: B ) Anton van Leeuwenhoek    

32. The classification system developed by Linnaeus includes which taxonomic ranks?
     A ) Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species    
     B ) Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species    
     C ) Kingdom, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species    
     D ) Domain, Kingdom, Class, Family, Genus, Species    
     Answer: B ) Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species    

33. Watson and Crick's discovery was based on X-ray diffraction images produced by which scientist?
     A ) Rosalind Franklin    
     B ) Barbara McClintock    
     C ) Frances Arnold    
     D ) Jennifer Doudna    
     Answer: A ) Rosalind Franklin

34. The main focus of Gebisa Ejeta’s research has been on improving:
     A ) Corn varieties    
     B ) Sorghum varieties    
     C ) Wheat varieties    
     D ) Rice varieties    
     Answer: B ) Sorghum varieties    

▎Professor Gebisa Ejeta

1. What is Professor Gebisa Ejeta known for?
   A) Discovering penicillin 
   B) Developing drought-resistant sorghum 
   C) Pioneering genetic engineering 
   D) Researching human genetics 
   Answer: B) Developing drought-resistant sorghum

2. Which prestigious award did Gebisa Ejeta receive in 2009?
   A) Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine 
   B) World Food Prize 
   C) Lasker Award 
   D) Pulitzer Prize 
   Answer: B) World Food Prize

3. Professor Gebisa Ejeta's research primarily focuses on which field?
   A) Botany 
   B) Agronomy 
   C) Zoology 
   D) Microbiology 
   Answer: B) Agronomy

▎Watson and Crick

4. James Watson and Francis Crick are famous for discovering:
   A) The structure of proteins 
   B) The double helix structure of DNA 
   C) The laws of inheritance 
   D) The process of photosynthesis 
   Answer: B) The double helix structure of DNA

5. In what year did Watson and Crick publish their famous paper on DNA?
   A) 1950 
   B) 1953 
   C) 1960 
   D) 1965 
   Answer: B) 1953

6. Watson and Crick based their model of DNA on the work of which scientist?
   A) Gregor Mendel 
   B) Rosalind Franklin 
   C) Charles Darwin 
   D) Louis Pasteur 
   Answer: B) Rosalind Franklin

▎Charles Darwin

7. Charles Darwin is best known for his theory of:
   A) Relativity 
   B) Evolution by natural selection 
   C) Germ theory of disease 
   D) Plate tectonics 
   Answer: B) Evolution by natural selection

8. What is the title of Charles Darwin's most famous book?
   A) The Origin of Species 
   B) The Descent of Man 
   C) The Voyage of the Beagle 
   D) On the Origin of Life 
   Answer: A) The Origin of Species

9. Darwin's observations during his voyage on the HMS Beagle contributed to his ideas about:
   A) Genetics 
   B) Ecology 
   C) Natural selection 
   D) Microbiology 
   Answer: C) Natural selection

▎Galen

10. Galen was a prominent figure in which field?
    A) Physics 
    B) Medicine 
    C) Astronomy 
    D) Chemistry 
    Answer: B) Medicine

11. Galen's work primarily influenced which aspect of medicine?
    A) Surgical techniques 
    B) Anatomy and physiology 
    C) Nutrition 
    D) Pharmacology 
    Answer: B) Anatomy and physiology

12. Which ancient civilization did Galen belong to?
    A) Egyptian 
    B) Roman 
    C) Greek 
    D) Chinese 
    Answer: B) Roman

▎Campbell

13. What is the primary focus of Campbell Biology, authored by Neil Campbell?
    A) Human anatomy 
    B) Molecular biology 
    C) General biology principles and concepts 
    D) Environmental science 
    Answer: C) General biology principles and concepts

14. Campbell Biology is widely used as a textbook for which level of education?
    A) Elementary school 
    B) High school 
    C) Undergraduate college courses 
    D) Graduate studies 
    Answer: C) Undergraduate college courses

15. Which edition of Campbell Biology is known for its comprehensive coverage of modern biology?
    A) 1st Edition 
    B) 5th Edition 
    C) 9th Edition 
    D) 12th Edition 
    Answer: D) 12th Edition

▎Professor Yalemtsehay Mekonnen

16. Professor Yalemtsehay Mekonnen is known for her contributions to which field?
    A) Environmental science 
    B) Public health and nutrition  
    C) Genetic engineering 
    D) Marine biology  
    Answer: B) Public health and nutrition

17. Which university is Professor Yalemtsehay Mekonnen associated with?
    A) Harvard University  
    B) Addis Ababa University  
    C) University of California  
    D) University of Oxford  
    Answer: B) Addis Ababa University

18. Professor Mekonnen’s research often focuses on:
    A) Climate change effects on agriculture  
    B) Nutrition and food security  
    C) Renewable energy sources  
    D) Wildlife conservation   
    Answer: B) Nutrition and food security  

▎Anton van Leeuwenhoek

▎Question 1:

What is the primary purpose of pollination in flowering plants?
A) To produce seeds 
B) To attract insects 
C) To absorb sunlight 
D) To enhance soil fertility 

Answer: A) To produce seeds

---

▎Question 2:

Which of the following is NOT a method of pollination?
A) Wind pollination 
B) Water pollination 
C) Insect pollination 
D) Soil pollination 

Answer: D) Soil pollination

---

▎Question 3:

Which insect is most commonly associated with pollination?
A) Ants 
B) Butterflies 
C) Bees 
D) Beetles 

Answer: C) Bees

---

▎Question 4:

What type of flowers typically attract bird pollinators?
A) Small and fragrant flowers 
B) Brightly colored flowers with tubular shapes 
C) Large, showy flowers with a strong scent 
D) Flowers that bloom at night 

Answer: B) Brightly colored flowers with tubular shapes

---

▎Question 5:

Which of the following plants relies primarily on wind for pollination?
A) Roses 
B) Corn 
C) Orchids 
D) Lilies 

Answer: B) Corn

---

▎Question 6:

What is cross-pollination?
A) Pollination that occurs within the same flower 
B) Pollination between different flowers of the same species 
C) Pollination between different species 
D) Pollination that occurs without any pollinator 

Answer: B) Pollination between different flowers of the same species

---

▎Question 7:

Which part of the flower is responsible for producing pollen?
A) Stigma 
B) Ovary 
C) Anther 
D) Style 

Answer: C) Anther

64. What is one way that roots can help prevent flooding in an area?
       a | By absorbing excess water from soil    
       b | By growing larger during rainstorms    
       c | By producing more leaves    
       d| By increasing evaporation rates    

65. Which part of the stem is primarily responsible for photosynthesis in some plants?
       a | Bark    
       b| Pith    
       c| Green stem tissue    
       d| Vascular cambium    

66. What happens to xylem cells as they mature?
       a| They remain living cells throughout life    
       b| They die and become hollow tubes for water transport    
       c| They turn into phloem cells    
       d| They disappear completely    

67. How do climbing plants use their stems differently than non-climbing plants?
       a| Climbing plants have thicker stems    
       b| Climbing plants use tendrils or hooks to attach to surfaces    
       c| Climbing plants do not have leaves    
       d| Climbing plants have shorter roots    

68. How does temperature affect root growth compared to stem growth?
       a| Both grow better in cold temperatures    
       b| Roots typically grow better in cooler soils while stems prefer warmth    
       c| Temperature has no effect on either    
       d| Both require high temperatures to thrive    

69. Why might some plants develop shallow root systems instead of deep ones?
       a| In search for deeper nutrients    
       b| In response to poor drainage or compacted soils    
       c| For better anchorage during storms    
       d| All types prefer shallow systems    

70. How can pruning affect plant health regarding its stems?
        a| It slows down overall growth rate immediately       
        b| It encourages bushier growth by stimulating lateral buds       
        c| It has no effect on future growth       
        d| It only affects flower production       

71. How does drought stress affect root development in plants?
        a| It promotes deeper root growth       
        b| It causes root dieback       
        c| It enhances nutrient absorption       
        d| It increases leaf production       

72. Which hormone is primarily involved in regulating stem elongation?
        a| Auxin       
        b| Cytokinin       
        c| Ethylene       
        d| Gibberellin       

73. In what way can environmental pollutants affect root systems negatively?
        a| They promote faster growth       
        b| They can harm beneficial microbes associated with roots       
        c| They have no impact on root systems       
        d| They improve nutrient uptake       

74. How do some aquatic plants adapt their roots for survival underwater?
        a| By developing thicker bark       
        b| By growing floating leaves instead       
        c| By forming specialized air-filled spaces within roots       
        d| By reducing their root size       

75. Why might farmers choose to cultivate crops with deep taproots?
        a| For better nutrient absorption from deeper soils       
        b| For faster surface growth       
        c| For increased flower production       
        d| For larger fruit size       

76. How does soil composition affect root development in plants?
        a| Only sandy soils promote good root growth       
        b| Clay soils hinder root penetration       
        c| Soil composition has no effect on root systems       
        d| All types promote equal growth       

77. What role does vascular cambium play in woody plants' stems?
        a| It transports food       
        b| It facilitates secondary growth by producing new xylem and phloem       
        c| It absorbs nutrients       
        d| It protects against pests

78. Which structure allows for gas exchange within both roots and stems?
        a| Lenticels       
        b| Stomata       
        c| Cuticle       
        d| Bark       

79. How does excessive moisture affect root health in plants like potatoes or carrots?
        a| It enhances nutrient absorption       
        b| It can lead to rot or disease       
        c| It promotes faster growth       
        d| It has no significant impact       

80. Which feature distinguishes monocotyledonous plants from dicotyledonous ones concerning their vascular bundles in stems?
        a| Monocots have scattered vascular bundles while dicots have them arranged in rings       
        b| Both have similar arrangements       
        c| Dicots have scattered bundles while monocots have rings       
        d| Vascular bundles are absent in both types       

▎Application Questions

81. If you were to study how drought affects plant survival, which part would you focus on first: roots or leaves, and why?
        a| Roots because they absorb water       
        b| Leaves because they perform photosynthesis       
        c| Both equally       
        d| Neither; focus on flowers       

82. In what ways could understanding root systems help improve agricultural practices?
        a| Increase crop yields through better planting techniques       
        b| Decrease need for fertilizers by improving nutrient uptake       
        c| Enhance soil conservation efforts       
        d| All of the above       

83. If you noticed wilting leaves on your houseplant, what could be an initial assumption regarding its root health?
        a| The plant needs more sunlight       
        b| The plant might be overwatered or underwatered affecting its roots       
        c| The plant needs more fertilizer       
        d| The plant requires pruning       

84. In studying how certain species adapt to their environments, which aspect would be crucial: root depth or stem height, and why?
        a| Root depth because it influences water access       
        b| Stem height because it determines light access       
        c| Both equally important       
        d| Neither; focus on leaves       

85. If you were to design an experiment testing how different soil types affect root growth, what would be your control group be based on common practice among scientists?:
        a| Use one specific soil type that is neutral (like sand).      
        b| Use multiple soil types with varying pH levels        
        c| Use no soil at all        
        d| Use only organic compost        

86.  When considering urban planting, which aspect should be prioritized regarding trees?:
         a)| Root space availability        
         b)| Flowering potential        
         c)| Leaf color        
         d)| Bark texture        

87.  If you wanted to encourage bushier growth in your garden shrubs, what would you do regarding pruning?:
         a)| Prune heavily at the base        
         b)| Lightly prune tips regularly        
         c)| Do not prune at all        
         d)| Prune only during winter        

88.  In terms of evolutionary adaptations, why might some desert plants develop shallow but extensive root systems?:
         a)| For quick access to surface moisture after rains        
         b)| For anchoring against wind        
         c)| For nutrient storage        
         d)| For increased photosynthesis        

89.| If you observed that certain trees were losing bark rapidly, what could this indicate about their health?:|
         a)| They are thriving        
         b)| They may be infested with pests or diseases        
         c)| They are growing rapidly        
         d)| Their leaves are dying        

90.| What role does mulch play concerning root systems when applied around trees?:|
         a)| It prevents weed growth only

b)| It retains moisture and regulates temperature        
         c)| It attracts pests        
         d)| It promotes faster leaf growth        

91.| If you were studying how different watering schedules affect plant health, what aspect would you monitor closely?:|
         a)| Leaf color changes        
         b)| Root development        
         c)| Flower production        
         d)| Stem thickness        

92.| How can understanding stem structures benefit horticulturists?:|
         a)| Help them create better fertilizers        
         b)| Aid them in selecting suitable pruning techniques        
         c)| Improve pest control methods        
         d)| None; it's irrelevant        

93.| If you were tasked with improving soil drainage for better root development, what method would you consider?:|
         a)| Adding sand or organic matter        
         b)| Increasing watering frequency        
         c)| Planting closer together        
         d)| Using chemical fertilizers        

94.| When observing trees after heavy rainfall, what aspect would indicate healthy root systems?:|
         a)| Leaves remain vibrant green        
         b)| No signs of wilting or drooping        
         c)| Absence of surface pooling around bases        
         d)| All of the above        

95.| If you were designing an experiment on how light affects stem elongation, which variable would you manipulate?:|
         a)| Amount of light exposure        
         b)| Soil type used        
         c)| Watering frequency        
         d)| Type of plant used        

96.| What could indicate that soil compaction is affecting root health?:|
         a)| Increased leaf size        
         b)| Wilting despite adequate watering        
         c)| Rapid flower production        
         d)| Thicker bark formation        

97.| How might understanding seasonal changes help gardeners?:|
         a)| Plan planting schedules effectively        
         b)| Choose colors for flowers        
         c)| Select types based solely on aesthetics        
         d)| Ignore weather conditions        

98.| If you wanted to study how different fertilizers impact stem strength, what would be your control group?:|
         a)| Plants without any fertilizer        
         b)| Plants receiving organic fertilizers only        
         c)| Plants receiving chemical fertilizers only        
         d)| Plants grown indoors only        

99.| When analyzing tree rings, what information can be gleaned about past environmental conditions?:|
         a)| Growth patterns indicate rainfall levels        
         b)| Thickness indicates nutrient availability        
         c)| Color changes indicate temperature shifts        
         d)| All options are correct        

100.| If you observe that your houseplant's roots are growing out of its pot, what action should you take?:|
         a)| Leave it as is; it's healthy        
         b)| Repot into larger container with fresh soil        
         c)| Cut back on watering immediately        
         d)| Prune back all leaves        

▎Answer Key:

1-b, 2-b, 3-a, 4-a, 5-b, 6-a, 7-b, 8-b, 9-b, 10-a, 11-b, 12-b, 13-b, 14-c, 15-b, 16-c, 17-b, 18-b, 19-c, 20-a,
21-b, 22-d, 23-b, 24-b, 25-a, 26-b, 27-b, 28-c, 29-b, 30-c,
31-c, 32-b, 33-c, 34-a, 35-c, 36-c, 37-b, 38-b, 39-c, 40-b,
41-a, 42-b, 43-c, 44-a, 45-c, 46-a, 47-b, 48-b, 49-b, 50-a,
51-b, 52-c, 53-a, 54-a, 55-b, 56-c, 57-d, 58-b, 59-b, 60-b,
61-b, 62-b, 63-b, 64-b, 65-c, 66-b, 67-b, 68-b, 69-b,
70-b, 71-a, 72-a, 73-b, 74-c, 75-a,
76-b, 77-b,
78-a,
79-b,
80-a,
81-a,
82-d,
83-b,
84-a,
85-a,
86-a,
87-b,
88-a,
89-b,
90-b,
91-b,
92-b,
93-a,
94-d,
95-a,
96-b,
97-a,
98-a,
99-d,
100-b.

ChatGPT 4 | Midjourney | Claude | Suno:
24. Which part of the stem transports food produced by photosynthesis?
    a) Xylem  
    b) Phloem  
    c) Cortex  
    d) Pith  

25. What is the outermost layer of a stem called?
    a) Bark  
    b) Pith  
    c) Cortex  
    d) Vascular cambium  

26. Which structure allows for growth in thickness in stems?
    a) Apical meristem  
    b) Lateral meristem (cambium)  
    c) Epidermis  
    d ) Xylem  

27. What is the purpose of lenticels on stems?
    a ) To absorb water   
    b ) For gas exchange   
    c ) To provide support   
    d ) To store food   

28. What type of stem has nodes and internodes?
    a ) Roots   
    b ) Leaves   
    c ) Stems   
    d ) Flowers   

29. What is the function of pith in stems?
     a ) To conduct photosynthesis   
     b ) To store nutrients and water   
     c ) To transport food   
     d ) To provide structural support   

30. In which type of plant would you find herbaceous stems?
     a ) Trees   
     b ) Shrubs   
     c ) Grasses   
     d ) Vines   

31. What type of plant has woody stems that can grow tall over time?
     a ) Herbaceous plants   
     b ) Annual plants   
     c ) Perennial plants   
     d ) Biennial plants   

32. How do stems help with reproduction in flowering plants?
     a ) By absorbing nutrients   
     b ) By supporting flowers and fruits   
     c ) By storing energy   
     d ) By conducting photosynthesis   

33. What part of the stem connects leaves to the main stem?
     a ) Node   
     b ) Internode   
     c ) Petiole   
     d ) Axillary bud   

34. Which part of the stem grows new shoots and leaves?
     a ) Node   
     b ) Internode   
     c ) Pith   
     d ) Vascular cambium   

35. What type of tissue is responsible for transporting nutrients in stems?
     a ) Parenchyma   
     b ) Collenchyma   
     c ) Phloem   
     d ) Sclerenchyma   

36. Which structure in woody stems provides strength and support?
     a ) Cortex   
     b ) Phloem   
     c ) Xylem   
     d ) Epidermis   

37. What do we call the process by which stems grow taller or longer?
     a ) Secondary growth   
     b ) Primary growth   
     c ) Lateral growth   
     d ) Apical growth   

38. How do stems help plants compete for sunlight?
     a ) By growing wider   
     b ) By growing taller to reach light   
     c ) By growing deeper into the ground   
     d ) By producing more leaves   

39. What happens to xylem as trees age?
     a ) It becomes less efficient   
     b ) It increases in size   
     c ) It forms rings in wood   
     d ) It disappears   

40. What can be found at the tips of stems that help them grow longer?
      a ) Lateral meristem     
      b ) Apical meristem     
      c ) Vascular cambium     
      d | Cortex     

▎Combined Roots and Stems

41. How do roots and stems work together in plants?
      a | Roots absorb water, stems transport it     
      b | Roots produce flowers, stems absorb sunlight     
      c | Roots store food, stems absorb nutrients     
      d | Roots perform photosynthesis, stems anchor plants     

42. Which part of both roots and stems helps with growth?
      a | Epidermis     
      b | Meristematic tissue     
      c | Xylem     
      d | Phloem     

43. What type of growth occurs at the tips of both roots and stems?
      a | Lateral growth     
      b | Secondary growth     
      c | Primary growth     
      d | Apical growth     

44. How do both roots and stems contribute to plant stability?
      a | Roots anchor in soil, stems support leaves     
      b | Roots grow deeper, stems grow wider     
      c | Roots absorb nutrients, stems produce flowers     
      d | Roots conduct photosynthesis, stems store water     

45. Which part connects roots to stems in plants?
      a | Petiole     
      b | Node

c | Vascular tissue     
      d | Epidermis     

46. What role do both roots and stems play in nutrient uptake?
      a | Roots absorb nutrients, stems distribute them     
      b | Roots store nutrients, stems absorb them     
      c | Both absorb nutrients equally     
      d | Only roots absorb nutrients     

47. In what way do roots and stems differ in their primary functions?
      a | Roots store food, stems absorb water     
      b | Roots anchor plants, stems support growth     
      c | Roots perform photosynthesis, stems do not     
      d | Roots transport nutrients, stems do not     

48. How does damage to roots affect stem growth?
      a | It has no effect on stem growth     
      b | It can stunt or slow down stem growth     
      c | It makes stems grow faster     
      d | It only affects leaf production     

49. What happens when there is insufficient water absorbed by roots?
      a | Stems grow taller     
      b | Leaves turn yellow and drop off     
      c | Photosynthesis increases     
      d | Stems become thicker     

50. How do environmental factors influence both roots and stems?
      a | They affect only root growth     
      b | They impact nutrient absorption and support structures     
      c | They only impact leaf color     
      d | They have no effect on plants     

51. Which type of stem grows horizontally along the ground?
      a | Taproot    
      b | Rhizome    
      c | Fibrous    
      d | Adventitious    

52. Where do new lateral roots typically emerge from?
      a | The root cap    
      b | The xylem    
      c | The pericycle    
      d | The cortex    

53. In which part of the stem would you find vascular bundles arranged in a ring?
      a | Herbaceous plants    
      b | Woody plants    
      c | Both types    
      d | None    

54. What is one advantage of having deep roots in certain plants?
      a | Access to deeper water sources    
      b | More surface area for absorption    
      c | Better support for tall structures    
      d | Faster growth rate    

55. Which part helps protect young shoots as they emerge from the soil?
      a | Leaf    
      b | Bud scales    
      c | Stem cap    
      d | Root hair    

56. What structure in stems can develop into branches or flowers?
      a | Node    
      b | Internode    
      c | Axillary bud    
      d | Petiole    

57. Which type of plant has both fibrous and taproot systems?
      a | Annuals    
      b | Perennials    
      c | Biennials    
      d | None    

58. How do adventitious roots benefit climbing plants like ivy?
      a | They absorb more water    
      b | They help anchor the plant to surfaces    
      c | They store more nutrients    
      d | They conduct photosynthesis    

59. In what way do tuberous roots differ from other types of roots?
      a | They are not involved in absorption    
      b | They store large amounts of starch    
      c | They grow above ground    
      d | They have no vascular tissue    

60. How do root systems affect soil health overall?
       a | They compact soil    
       b | They improve soil aeration and structure    
       c | They prevent erosion only    
       d | They increase acidity    

▎Advanced Concepts

61. What happens during secondary growth in woody plants?
       a | Increase in height only    
       b | Thickening of stems and roots    
       c | Production of new leaves    
       d | Growth stops completely    

62. Why are mycorrhizal associations important for many plants?
       a | They provide shade    
       b | They enhance nutrient uptake from soil    
       c | They produce oxygen    
       d | They prevent diseases    

63. How can damage to phloem affect plant health?
       a | It disrupts water transport only

b | It prevents nutrient distribution throughout the plant    
       c | It has no effect on plant health    
       d | It leads to faster growth    

1. What is the main function of roots?
   a) To produce flowers 
   b) To absorb water and nutrients 
   c) To perform photosynthesis 
   d) To provide shade 

2. Which part of the root is responsible for absorbing water?
   a) Root cap 
   b) Root hair 
   c) Cortex 
   d) Endodermis 

3. What is the outer layer of a root called?
   a) Epidermis 
   b) Cortex 
   c) Xylem 
   d) Phloem 

4. What do root hairs increase in roots?
   a) Surface area for absorption 
   b) Length of the root 
   c) Weight of the plant 
   d) Number of leaves 

5. Which tissue transports water from the roots to the rest of the plant?
   a) Phloem 
   b) Xylem 
   c) Cortex 
   d) Epidermis 

6. What is the function of the root cap?
   a) To protect the root tip as it grows through soil 
   b) To absorb nutrients 
   c) To store food 
   d) To conduct photosynthesis 

7. Which part of the root stores food?
   a) Epidermis 
   b) Cortex 
   c) Root hair 
   d) Xylem 

8. What type of root system has one main root with smaller lateral roots?
   a) Fibrous root system 
   b) Taproot system 
   c) Adventitious root system 
   d) Shallow root system 

9. Which type of plant typically has a taproot system?
   a) Grass 
   b) Dandelion 
   c) Ferns 
   d) Mosses 

10. What is the primary function of lateral roots?
    a) To anchor the plant deeper in the soil 
    b) To absorb sunlight 
    c) To produce flowers 
    d) To store water 

11. Where does most nutrient absorption occur in roots?
    a) Root cap 
    b) Root hairs 
    c) Xylem 
    d) Phloem 

12. Which part of the root is responsible for growth?
    a) Root cap 
    b) Meristematic region 
    c) Epidermis 
    d) Cortex 

13. What is the main role of phloem in roots?
    a) To transport water 
    b) To transport nutrients and food from leaves to other parts 
    c) To store food 
    d) To provide structure 

14. What type of cells make up the xylem?
    a) Parenchyma cells 
    b) Sclerenchyma cells 
    c) Tracheids and vessel elements 
    d) Collenchyma cells 

15. What is the function of the endodermis in roots?
    a) To absorb nutrients 
    b) To regulate water and nutrient flow into the vascular system 
    c) To store food 
    d) To protect the root 

16. Which part of the root helps in anchoring the plant?
    a) Root hairs 
    b) Lateral roots 
    c) Taproot 
    d) Root cap 

17. How do roots help in soil conservation?
    a) By absorbing sunlight  
    b) By preventing soil erosion with their structure  
    c) By increasing soil temperature  
    d) By producing flowers  

18. What is the function of mycorrhizae associated with roots?
    a) To protect against pests  
    b) To enhance nutrient absorption  
    c) To store water  
    d) To produce energy  

19. Which type of roots grow above ground?
    a) Taproots  
    b) Fibrous roots  
    c) Adventitious roots  
    d) Storage roots  

20. What is one reason why plants have deep roots?
    a) To absorb more sunlight  
    b) To access deeper water sources  
    c) To produce flowers  
    d) To grow taller  

▎Stems

21. What is the main function of stems?
    a) To absorb water  
    b) To support leaves and flowers  
    c) To store food  
    d) To perform photosynthesis  

22. Which part of the stem contains vascular tissue?
    a) Epidermis  
    b) Cortex  
    c) Pith  
    d) All of the above  

23. What does xylem transport in stems?
    a) Nutrients only  
    b) Water and minerals only  
    c) Food only  
    d) Water, minerals, and nutrients

27. How do plants get sunlight for photosynthesis?
    a ) Through roots  
    b ) Through leaves  
    c ) Through flowers  
    d ) Through stems  

28. What is the main gas released by leaves during photosynthesis?
    a ) Carbon dioxide  
    b ) Oxygen  
    c ) Nitrogen  
    d ) Hydrogen  

29. Which part of the leaf helps with nutrient storage?
    a ) Epidermis  
    b ) Mesophyll  
    c ) Stomata  
    d ) Veins  

30. What happens to excess glucose made during photosynthesis?
    a ) It is used immediately  
    b ) It is stored as starch  
    c ) It is lost through stomata  
    d ) It is turned into oxygen  

31. Which type of mesophyll is located closer to the upper surface of the leaf?
    a ) Spongy mesophyll  
    b ) Palisade mesophyll  
    c ) Epidermis  
    d ) Cuticle  

32. Which structure protects the inner parts of the leaf from insects and diseases?
    a ) Cuticle  
    b ) Stomata  
    c ) Mesophyll  
    d ) Veins  

33. In which type of plant would you find needle-like leaves, such as pine trees?
    a ) Deciduous trees  
    b ) Coniferous trees  
    c ) Flowering plants  
    d ) Aquatic plants  

34. How do leaves help regulate temperature in plants?
     a ) By absorbing sunlight only   
     b ) By releasing oxygen   
     c ) By losing water through transpiration   
     d ) By storing nutrients   

35. Which part of the leaf contains air spaces to facilitate gas exchange?
     a ) Palisade mesophyll   
     b ) Spongy mesophyll   
     c ) Epidermis   
     d ) Veins   

36. What do you call the main vein that runs down the center of a leaf?
     a ) Midrib   
     b ) Petiole   
     c ) Leaf blade   
     d ) Stipule   

37. Which layer is found beneath the epidermis and contains chloroplasts?
     a ) Cuticle   
     b ) Palisade mesophyll   
     c ) Spongy mesophyll   
     d ) Xylem   

38. What happens to stomata when it’s hot and dry outside?
     a ) They open wider   
     b ) They close to prevent water loss   
     c ) They disappear   
     d ) They become larger   

39. What is one way leaves help plants adapt to their environment?
     a ) By changing color   
     b ) By growing larger   
     c ) By changing shape   
     d ) By losing leaves   

40. Which part of the leaf transports sugars away from the leaf after photosynthesis?
     a ) Xylem   
     b ) Phloem   
     c ) Epidermis   
     d ) Stomata   

41. What do we call leaves that fall off trees in autumn?
     a ) Evergreen leaves   
     b ) Deciduous leaves   
     c ) Succulent leaves   
     d ) Needle-like leaves   

42. How do chloroplasts benefit plant cells?
     a ) By storing energy   
     b ) By conducting photosynthesis   
     c ) By transporting nutrients   
     d ) By providing structure   

43. What is one function of leaf hairs (trichomes)?
     a ) To absorb sunlight   
     b ) To reduce water loss   
     c ) To help with photosynthesis   
     d ) To transport nutrients   

44. Which type of plant has broad, flat leaves for maximum sunlight absorption?
     a ) Cacti   
     b ) Grasses   
     c ) Deciduous trees   
     d ) Ferns   

45. How do plants respond to low light conditions regarding their leaves?
     a ) They grow smaller leaves   
     b ) They grow larger leaves   
     c ) They lose their leaves   
     d ) They change color   

46. What happens during photosynthesis in terms of energy conversion?
     a ) Light energy is converted into chemical energy

b ) Chemical energy is converted into heat energy   
     c ) Heat energy is converted into light energy   
     d ) Chemical energy is converted into kinetic energy   

47. Why do some plants have waxy coatings on their leaves?
     a ) To attract insects   
     b ) To prevent water loss   
     c ) To absorb more sunlight   
     d | To store food   

48. Which part of the leaf helps in nutrient absorption from soil through roots?
     a | Stomata   
     b | Xylem   
     c | Phloem   
     d | Epidermis   

49. How does leaf size affect photosynthesis efficiency?
     a | Larger leaves can capture more sunlight   
     b | Smaller leaves are always more efficient   
     c | Leaf size does not matter for photosynthesis   
     d | Only round leaves are efficient   

50. What adaptation do desert plants have regarding their leaves?
      a | Large, flat leaves for maximum sunlight capture     
      b | Thick, waxy cuticles and reduced leaf size     
      c | Colorful flowers to attract pollinators     
      d | Long roots to reach deep water     

▎Answers Key:

1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b, 5-b, 6-a, 7-c, 8-b, 9-c, 10-b, 11-b, 12-b, 13-c, 14-b, 15-c, 16-b, 17-b, 18-b, 19-b, 20-b, 21-b, 22-b, 23-b, 24-b, 25-c, 26-a, 27-b, 28-b, 29-b, 30-b, 31-b, 32-a, 33-b, 34-c, 35-b, 36-a, 37-b, 38-b, 39-c, 40-b, 41-b, 42-b, 43-b, 44-c, 45-b, 46-a, 47-b, 48-b, 49-a, 50-b.

1. What is the main function of a leaf?
   a) To absorb water 
   b) To produce food through photosynthesis 
   c) To anchor the plant 
   d) To store nutrients 

2. Which part of the leaf is responsible for photosynthesis?
   a) Stomata 
   b) Cuticle 
   c) Chloroplasts 
   d) Veins 

3. What is the outer layer of a leaf called?
   a) Epidermis 
   b) Mesophyll 
   c) Stomata 
   d) Petiole 

4. What are the tiny openings on the leaf surface that allow gas exchange?
   a) Chloroplasts 
   b) Stomata 
   c) Veins 
   d) Cuticle 

5. Which part of the leaf helps to prevent water loss?
   a) Stomata 
   b) Cuticle 
   c) Veins 
   d) Mesophyll 

6. What is the function of chlorophyll in leaves?
   a) To absorb sunlight 
   b) To transport water 
   c) To protect the leaf 
   d) To store food 

7. What type of tissue makes up the majority of the leaf?
   a) Dermal tissue 
   b) Vascular tissue 
   c) Ground tissue 
   d) Protective tissue 

8. Which part of the leaf contains most of the chloroplasts?
   a) Epidermis 
   b) Palisade mesophyll 
   c) Spongy mesophyll 
   d) Veins 

9. What do veins in a leaf transport?
   a) Food only 
   b) Water only 
   c) Water and nutrients 
   d) Air only 

10. What is the function of the palisade mesophyll?
    a) To store water 
    b) To conduct photosynthesis 
    c) To transport nutrients 
    d) To protect the leaf 

11. Which part of the leaf allows for gas exchange during photosynthesis?
    a) Epidermis 
    b) Stomata 
    c) Cuticle 
    d) Veins 

12. What is the main purpose of the spongy mesophyll?
    a) To absorb sunlight 
    b) To allow gas exchange and store some food 
    c) To transport water 
    d) To protect against pests 

13. What do we call the green pigment found in chloroplasts?
    a) Carotene 
    b) Anthocyanin 
    c) Chlorophyll 
    d) Xanthophyll 

14. What role does the cuticle play in leaves?
    a) It helps in photosynthesis 
    b) It prevents water loss 
    c) It transports nutrients 
    d) It absorbs sunlight 

15. Where does photosynthesis mainly occur in the leaf?
    a) In the epidermis 
    b) In the veins 
    c) In the mesophyll cells 
    d) In the cuticle 

16. What is the function of xylem in leaf veins?
    a) To transport food 
    b) To transport water and minerals 
    c) To store energy 
    d) To absorb sunlight 

17. What is the function of phloem in leaf veins?
    a) To transport water 
    b) To transport food produced by photosynthesis 
    c) To store nutrients 
    d) To provide structure 

18. Why do leaves appear green?
    a) Because of carotene pigments 
    b) Because of chlorophyll pigments 
    c) Because of anthocyanin pigments 
    d) Because of water content 

19. Which part of the leaf connects it to the stem?
    a) Blade 
    b) Petiole 
    c) Midrib 
    d) Vein 

20. What happens to stomata at night?
    a) They open wider 
    b) They close to conserve water 
    c) They disappear 
    d) They become larger 

21. Which process takes place in the chloroplasts of leaves?
    a) Respiration 
    b) Photosynthesis 
    c) Transpiration 
    d) Digestion 

22. What do plants use carbon dioxide for?
    a) To make oxygen only 
    b) To make glucose during photosynthesis  
    c) To absorb sunlight  
    d) To transport water  

23. Which part of the leaf helps to support its structure?
    a) Epidermis  
    b) Veins  
    c) Mesophyll  
    d ) Cuticle  

24. What is transpiration in plants?
    a) The process of making food  
    b ) The loss of water vapor from leaves  
    c ) The absorption of nutrients

d ) The growth of new leaves  

25. How does water enter the leaf?
    a ) Through stomata  
    b ) Through veins  
    c ) Through roots and stems  
    d ) Through cuticle  

26. What is one reason why leaves change color in autumn?
    a ) They lose chlorophyll  
    b ) They gain more chlorophyll  
    c ) They absorb more sunlight  
    d ) They grow larger  

1. What tool do scientists use to look at tiny things like cells?
   a) Telescope 
   b) Microscope 
   c) Ruler 
   d) Calculator 

2. Which instrument is used to measure liquid volumes?
   a) Thermometer 
   b) Graduated cylinder 
   c) Stopwatch 
   d) Scale 

3. What do you call the machine that helps grow bacteria in a warm place?
   a) Refrigerator 
   b) Incubator 
   c) Blender 
   d) Freezer 

4. Which tool helps separate parts of a mixture by spinning fast?
   a) Mixer 
   b) Centrifuge 
   c) Hammer 
   d) Spoon 

5. What do scientists use to see how much light a liquid absorbs?
   a) Spectrophotometer 
   b) Barometer 
   c) Anemometer 
   d) Compass 

6. Which instrument can help count cells in a sample?
   a) Calculator 
   b) Hemocytometer 
   c) Stopwatch 
   d) Ruler 

7. What is the purpose of a pipette?
   a) To measure temperature 
   b) To transfer small amounts of liquid 
   c) To cut paper 
   d) To weigh objects 

8. Which device is used to keep samples at a very low temperature?
   a) Oven 
   b) Refrigerator 
   c) Freezer 
   d) Microwave 

9. What instrument do you use to see if a solution is acidic or basic?
   a) pH meter 
   b) Balance scale 
   c) Thermometer 
   d) Stopwatch 

10. What is the function of an autoclave?
    a) To freeze samples 
    b) To sterilize equipment using heat and pressure 
    c) To mix chemicals 
    d) To measure weight 

11. Which tool helps scientists visualize DNA?
    a) Light microscope 
    b) Ruler 
    c) Thermometer 
    d) Stopwatch 

12. What do you use to separate different colors in ink?
    a) Centrifuge 
    b) Chromatography paper 
    c) Microscope 
    d) Test tube 

13. Which instrument is used to heat liquids in the lab?
    a) Bunsen burner 
    b) Thermometer 
    c) Ruler 
    d) Balance 

14. What instrument helps scientists take small samples of liquids accurately?
    a) Beaker 
    b) Pipette 
    c) Test tube 
    d) Funnel 

15. What do you call the tool that measures temperature?
    a) Thermometer 
    b) Barometer 
    c) Stopwatch 
    d) Hydrometer 

16. Which device do scientists use to mix liquids together?
    a) Blender 
    b) Microscope 
    c) Centrifuge 
    d) Test tube holder 

17. What is the purpose of a balance scale in the lab?
    a) To measure time 
    b) To measure weight 
    c) To measure temperature 
    d) To measure volume 

18. Which tool is essential for making thin slices of plants or tissues?
    a) Scissors 
    b) Microtome 
    c) Knife 
    d) Ruler 

19. What instrument helps you see the details in tiny organisms?
    a) Telescope 
    b) Microscope 
    c) Camera 
    d) Binoculars 

20. Which device allows scientists to analyze the colors in light?
    a) Spectrophotometer 
    b) Barometer 
    c) Hydrometer  
    d) Anemometer  

21. What do you use to grow bacteria in the lab?
    a) Petri dish  
    b) Beaker  
    c) Flask  
    d) Test tube  

22. Which tool measures how much light passes through a sample?
    a) Light meter  
    b) Spectrophotometer  
    c) Ruler  
    d) Thermometer  

23. What do you call the tool used to hold test tubes securely?
    a) Test tube rack  
    b) Beaker  
    c) Graduated cylinder  
    d) Bunsen burner  

24. Which instrument helps scientists see how much gas is in a container?
    a) Manometer  
    b) Thermometer  
    c) Ruler  
    d) Stopwatch  

25. What device is used to make precise measurements of liquid volume?
    a) Graduated cylinder  
    b) Petri dish  
    c) Beaker  
    d) Funnel

26. Which tool can help separate solids from liquids quickly?
    a) Filter paper  
    b) Test tube  
    c) Ruler  
    d) Stopwatch  

27. What instrument do you use to check how much water is in the air?
    a) Hygrometer  
    b) Barometer  
    c) Thermometer  
    d ) Anemometer  

28. Which device helps scientists see how fast things move in liquid?
    a ) Flow cytometer  
    b ) Stopwatch  
    c ) Ruler  
    d ) Thermometer  

29. What tool can help measure the amount of sugar in a solution?
     a ) Refractometer  
     b ) Spectrophotometer  
     c ) pH meter  
     d ) Balance scale  

30. Which instrument helps scientists see how much light reflects off surfaces?
     a ) Reflectometer  
     b ) Spectrophotometer  
     c ) Light meter  
     d ) Ruler  

31. What do you call the device that keeps samples at specific temperatures?
     a ) Incubator  
     b ) Freezer  
     c ) Refrigerator  
     d ) Oven  

32. Which tool is used to make sure liquids are mixed evenly?
     a ) Stirring rod  
     b ) Scale  
     c ) Ruler  
     d ) Stopwatch  

33. What instrument can help you see if something floats or sinks in water?
     a ) Density meter  
     b ) Hydrometer  
     c ) Ruler  
     d ) Stopwatch  

34. Which device measures how much pressure is in gases?
     a ) Barometer  
     b ) Manometer  
     c ) Ruler  
     d ) Thermometer  

35. What do you call the tool that holds and mixes liquids together?
     a ) Flask  
     b ) Beaker  
     c ) Petri dish  
     d ) Test tube  

36. Which instrument can help analyze how much protein is in food?
     a ) Spectrophotometer  
     b ) pH meter  
     c ) Thermocycler  
     d ) Balance scale  

37. What device helps scientists see if there are any germs on surfaces?
     a ) Microscope  
     b ) Spectrophotometer  
     c ) Ruler  
     d ) Stopwatch  

38. Which tool do you use to measure the size of small objects?
     a ) Ruler  
     b ) Scale  
     c ) Thermometer  
     d ) Stopwatch  

39. What instrument is used to check how acidic or basic something is?
     a ) pH meter  
     b ) Balance scale  
     c ) Thermometer  
     d ) Stopwatch  

40. What do you call the machine that helps separate blood components?
     a ) Centrifuge  
     b ) Mixer  
     c ) Filter   
     d ) Beaker  

41. Which instrument helps scientists identify different types of cells?
     a ) Microscope   
     b ) Ruler   
     c ) Scale   
     d ) Stopwatch   

42. What tool do you use to mix solutions without splashing?
     a ) Stirring rod   
     b ) Beaker   
     c ) Funnel   
     d ) Ruler   

43. Which device can help analyze how much light is absorbed by colored solutions?
     a ) Spectrophotometer   
     b ) Ruler   
     c ) Thermometer   
     d ) Stopwatch   

44. What instrument can help scientists study plant structures closely?
      a ) Microscope   
      b ) Ruler   
      c ) Scale   
      d ) Stopwatch   

45. Which tool allows scientists to count bacteria colonies on agar plates?
      a ) Colony counter   
      b ) Ruler   
      c ) Scale   
      d ) Stopwatch   

46. What do you call the dish where bacteria are grown in the lab?
      a ) Petri dish   
      b ) Beaker   
      c ) Test tube   
      d ) Flask   

47. Which device is used to check the temperature of liquids and gases?
      a ) Thermometer   
      b ) Barometer   
      c ) Hydrometer   
      d ) Ruler   

1. What is the main function of the petals in a flower?

   • A) Reproduction

   • B) Attract pollinators

   • C) Photosynthesis

   • D) Support the flower 
   Answer: B) Attract pollinators

2. Which part of the flower is responsible for producing pollen?

   • A) Stigma

   • B) Anther

   • C) Ovary

   • D) Style 
   Answer: B) Anther

3. What is the female reproductive part of a flower called?

   • A) Stamen

   • B) Pistil

   • C) Sepal

   • D) Receptacle 
   Answer: B) Pistil

4. What do we call the collective group of sepals in a flower?

   • A) Corolla

   • B) Calyx

   • C) Androecium

   • D) Gynoecium 
   Answer: B) Calyx

5. The part of the flower that develops into a fruit is called the:

   • A) Ovule

   • B) Ovary

   • C) Style

   • D) Stigma 
   Answer: B) Ovary

6. Which part of the flower is typically green and protects the developing bud?

   • A) Petal

   • B) Sepal

   • C) Stamen

   • D) Pistil 
   Answer: B) Sepal

7. What is the term for the male reproductive organs of a flower?

   • A) Gynoecium

   • B) Androecium

   • C) Corolla

   • D) Calyx 
   Answer: B) Androecium

8. Which part of the flower is sticky and receives pollen?

   • A) Anther

   • B) Stigma

   • C) Style

   • D) Ovary 
   Answer: B) Stigma

9. The stalk that supports the anther is called the:

   • A) Filament

   • B) Peduncle

   • C) Style

   • D) Receptacle 
   Answer: A) Filament

10. Which part of the flower contains ovules?

    • A) Anther

    • B) Stigma

    • C) Ovary

    • D) Filament 
    Answer: C) Ovary

11. What is the function of nectaries in flowers?

    • A) Produce pollen

    • B) Attract pollinators with nectar

    • C) Protect ovules

    • D) Support the flower structure 
    Answer: B) Attract pollinators with nectar

12. What is the term for flowers that contain both male and female reproductive parts?

    • A) Unisexual

    • B) Bisexual (or perfect)

    • C) Complete

    • D) Incomplete 
    Answer: B) Bisexual (or perfect)

13. Which structure connects the stigma to the ovary?

    • A) Style

    • B) Filament

    • C) Receptacle

    • D) Peduncle 
    Answer: A) Style

14. What do we call a flower that has all four whorls (sepals, petals, stamens, and carpels)?

    • A) Incomplete flower

    • B) Complete flower

    • C) Simple flower

    • D) Compound flower 
    Answer: B) Complete flower

15. Which part of the flower can be brightly colored to attract pollinators?

    • A) Sepals

    • B) Petals

    • C) Stamen

    • D) Ovary 
    Answer: B) Petals

16. The part of the flower that holds up all other parts is called the:

    • A) Peduncle

    • B) Receptacle

    • C) Filament

    • D) Stigma 
    Answer: B) Receptacle

17. Which part of the stamen produces pollen grains?

    • A) Filament

    • B) Anther

    • C) Style

    • D) Ovule 
    Answer: B) Anther

18. What is the function of ovules in a flower?

    • A) To produce nectar

    • B) To develop into seeds after fertilization

    • C) To attract pollinators

    • D) To support the anther 
    Answer: B) To develop into seeds after fertilization

19. Which part of a flower can develop into seeds after fertilization?

    • A) Stigma

    • B) Ovule

    • C) Anther

    • D) Petal 
    Answer: B) Ovule

20. What are the tiny structures that contain pollen grains called?

    • A) Ovules

    • B) Anthers

    • C) Stigmas

    • D) Styles 
    Answer: B) Anthers

21. Which part of the flower is often modified to form a fruit?

    • A) Sepal

    • B) Petal

    • C) Ovary

    • D) Anther 
    Answer: C) Ovary

22. What do we call flowers that have only male or only female reproductive parts?

    • A) Complete flowers

• B) Incomplete flowers

    • C) Unisexual flowers

    • D) Perfect flowers 
    Answer: C) Unisexual flowers

23. What is the outermost whorl of a flower called?

    • A) Corolla

    • B) Calyx

    • C) Androecium

    • D) Gynoecium 
    Answer: B) Calyx

24. Which part of the pistil is usually swollen and contains ovules?

43. *** Which part of the pistil is elongated and connects stigma to ovary?
          *A)* Style.*
          *B)* Stigma.*
          *C)* Ovule.*
          *D)* Anther.* 
          * Answer:A)* Style.*

44. *** What term describes flowers that lack either stamens or carpels?
          *A)* Complete flowers.*
          *B)* Incomplete flowers.*
          *C)* Perfect flowers.*
          *D)* Imperfect flowers.* 
          * Answer:B)* Incomplete flowers.*

45. *** Which plant structure supports and elevates the reproductive organs?
          *A)* Stem.*
          *B)* Leaf.*
          *C)* Peduncle.*
          *D)* Root.* 
          * Answer:C)* Peduncle.*

46. *** What type of flowers are typically small and inconspicuous?
          *A)* Insect-pollinated flowers.*
          *B)* Wind-pollinated flowers.*
          *C)* Brightly colored flowers.*
          *D)* Fragrant flowers.* 
          * Answer:B)* Wind-pollinated flowers.*

47. *** What structure in a flower contains reproductive organs and may develop into fruit?
          *A)* Petal.*
          *B)* Sepal.*
          *C)* Ovary.*
          *D)* Anther.* 
          * Answer:C)* Ovary.*

48. *** The term "gynoecium" refers to which part of a flower?
          *A)* Male reproductive parts.*
          *B)* Female reproductive parts.*
          *C)* All floral parts collectively.*
          *D)* The outermost whorl.* 
          * Answer:B)* Female reproductive parts.*

49. *** Which structure provides support for the anther and connects it to the base of the flower?
          *A)* Filament.*
          *B)* Style.*
          *C)* Peduncle.*
          *D)* Receptacle.* 
          * Answer:A)* Filament.*
      

    • A) Stigma

    • B) Style

    • C) Ovary

    • D) Anther 
    Answer: C) Ovary

25. What is the main purpose of petals in flowering plants?

     • A)** Protection*

     • B)** Photosynthesis*

     • C)** Attraction of pollinators*

     • D)** Water storage* 
     Answer:C)** Attraction of pollinators*

26. *** What is the function of sepals in a flower?

     • A)** Provide support*

     • B)** Protect developing buds*

     • C)** Produce pollen*

     • D)** Facilitate photosynthesis* 
     Answer:B)** Protect developing buds*

27. *** What do we call the process by which pollen is transferred from anther to stigma?

     • A)** Fertilization*

     • B)** Pollination*

     • C)** Germination*

     • D)** Seed dispersal* 
     Answer:B)** Pollination*

28. *** The term "corolla" refers to which part of the flower?

     • A)** All petals collectively*

     • B)** All sepals collectively*

     • C)** The entire reproductive structure*

     • D)** The ovary* 
     Answer:A)** All petals collectively*

29. *** Which part of the stamen is responsible for supporting the anther?

     • A)** Filament*

     • B)** Peduncle*

     • C)** Style*

     • D)** Receptacle* 
     Answer:A)** Filament*

30. *** What do we call a flower that has no petals?

     • A)** Incomplete flower*

     • B)** Naked flower*

     • C)** Simple flower*

     • D)** Perfect flower* 
     Answer:A)** Incomplete flower*

31. *** Which part of a flower develops into a seed after fertilization?

     • A)** Ovule*

     • B)** Stigma*

     • C)** Anther*

     • D)** Petal* 
     Answer:A)** Ovule*

32. *** What type of plant typically has brightly colored flowers?

     • A)** Wind-pollinated plants*

     • B)** Insect-pollinated plants*

     • C)** Self-pollinated plants*

     • D)** Aquatic plants* 
     Answer:B)** Insect-pollinated plants*

33. *** Which part of the plant contains reproductive organs?

     • A)** Leaf*

     • B)** Stem*

     • C)** Flower*

     • D)** Root* 
     Answer:C)** Flower*

34. *** What structure supports the entire flower?

     • A)** Peduncle*

     • B)** Receptacle*

     • C)** Filament*

     • D)** Calyx* 
     Answer:A)** Peduncle*

35. *** What happens to the stigma after pollination occurs?
          *A)* It withers away.*
          *B)* It absorbs nutrients.*
          *C)* It becomes sticky.*
          *D)* It grows taller.* 
          * Answer:C)* It becomes sticky.*

36. *** Which flower part contains ovules before fertilization?
          *A)* Anther.*
          *B)* Stigma.*
          *C)* Ovary.*
          *D)* Petal.* 
          * Answer:C)* Ovary.*

37. *** What type of flowers are often used in gardens for their visual appeal?
          *A)* Functional flowers.*
          *B)* Ornamental flowers.*
          *C)* Wildflowers.*
          *D)* Medicinal flowers.* 
          * Answer:B)* Ornamental flowers.*

38. *** What do you call flowers that bloom only once a year?
          *A)* Annuals.*
          *B)* Perennials.*
          *C)* Biennials.*
          *D)* Ephemerals.* 
          * Answer:A)* Annuals.*

39. *** Which part of a flower can be modified to become a fruit?
          *A)* Petals.*
          *B)* Sepals.*
          *C)* Ovary.*
          *D)* Anther.*

     * Answer:C)* Ovary.*

40. *** The sticky tip at the end of the pistil is known as:
          *A)* Style.*
          *B)* Stigma.*
          *C)* Ovule.*
          *D)* Anther.* 
          * Answer:B)* Stigma.*

41. *** Which type of pollination occurs when pollen from one flower fertilizes another flower?
          *A)* Self-pollination.*
          *B)* Cross-pollination.*
          *C)* Wind-pollination.*
          *D)* Water-pollination.* 
          * Answer:B)* Cross-pollination.*

42. *** What is the primary role of nectar in flowers?
          *A)* To provide food for plants.*
          *B)* To attract pollinators.*
          *C)* To protect ovules.*
          *D)* To nourish seeds.* 
          * Answer:B)* To attract pollinators.*

1. Where do the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis occur?

   • A) Stroma

   • B) Thylakoid membranes

   • C) Cytoplasm

   • D) Mitochondria 
   Answer: B) Thylakoid membranes

2. What is the primary function of the light-dependent reactions?

   • A) To fix carbon dioxide

   • B) To produce glucose

   • C) To convert solar energy into chemical energy (ATP and NADPH)

   • D) To release oxygen 
   Answer: C) To convert solar energy into chemical energy (ATP and NADPH)

3. Which of the following is produced as a byproduct of the light-dependent reactions?

   • A) Glucose

   • B) Oxygen

   • C) Carbon dioxide

   • D) Water 
   Answer: B) Oxygen

4. What is the main role of water in the light-dependent reactions?

   • A) To absorb sunlight

   • B) To provide electrons through photolysis

   • C) To fix carbon dioxide

   • D) To produce glucose 
   Answer: B) To provide electrons through photolysis

5. In which part of photosynthesis does the Calvin cycle take place?

   • A) Light-dependent reactions

   • B) Light-independent reactions (Calvin cycle)

   • C) Electron transport chain

   • D) Glycolysis 
   Answer: B) Light-independent reactions (Calvin cycle)

6. What is the main purpose of the Calvin cycle?

   • A) To capture light energy

   • B) To produce ATP and NADPH

   • C) To fix carbon dioxide into organic molecules (glucose)

   • D) To release oxygen 
   Answer: C) To fix carbon dioxide into organic molecules (glucose)

7. Which enzyme is crucial for carbon fixation in the Calvin cycle?

   • A) ATP synthase

   • B) RuBisCO

   • C) NADP reductase

   • D) Phosphofructokinase 
   Answer: B) RuBisCO

8. Which molecule acts as an energy carrier in both light-dependent and light-independent reactions?

   • A) ATP

   • B) NADPH

   • C) Both ATP and NADPH

   • D) Glucose 
   Answer: C) Both ATP and NADPH

9. What happens to the ATP and NADPH produced in the light-dependent reactions?

   • A) They are used in the light-dependent reactions again.

   • B) They are transported to the mitochondria.

   • C) They are utilized in the Calvin cycle (light-independent reactions).

   • D) They are stored for later use. 
   Answer: C) They are utilized in the Calvin cycle (light-independent reactions).

10. During which part of photosynthesis is carbon dioxide fixed into organic molecules?

    • A) Light-dependent reactions

    • B) Light-independent reactions (Calvin cycle)

    • C) Photolysis

    • D) Electron transport chain 
    Answer: B) Light-independent reactions (Calvin cycle)

11. Which of the following is NOT a product of the light-dependent reactions?

    • A) ATP

    • B) NADPH

    • C) Glucose

    • D) Oxygen 
    Answer: C) Glucose

12. What is the role of chlorophyll in the light-dependent reactions?

    • A) To fix carbon dioxide

    • B) To absorb light energy

    • C) To release oxygen

    • D) To produce glucose 
    Answer: B) To absorb light energy

13. How do light intensity and carbon dioxide concentration affect the rate of photosynthesis?

    • A) They have no effect.

    • B) They both increase the rate until a saturation point.

    • C) They decrease the rate.

    • D) They only affect the light-dependent reactions. 
    Answer: B) They both increase the rate until a saturation point.

14. What type of reaction occurs when water is split during photolysis?

    • A) Endothermic reaction

    • B) Exothermic reaction

    • C) Oxidation reaction

    • D) Reduction reaction 
    Answer: C) Oxidation reaction

15. The light-independent reactions require which of the following to function effectively?

• A) Light directly

    • B) ATP and NADPH from the light-dependent reactions

    • C) Oxygen from photolysis

    • D) Water directly 
    Answer: B) ATP and NADPH from the light-dependent reactions

16. What is produced during cyclic photophosphorylation?

    • A) NADPH only

    • B) ATP only

    • C) Both ATP and NADPH

    • D) Oxygen only 
    Answer: B) ATP only

17. Which pigment absorbs primarily blue and red wavelengths of light?

    • A) Carotenoids

    • B) Chlorophyll a

    • C) Chlorophyll b

    • D) Xanthophylls 
    Answer: B) Chlorophyll a

18. What is the initial carbon compound formed in the Calvin cycle?

    • A) Ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP)

    • B) 3-phosphoglycerate (3-PGA)

    • C) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P)

    • D) Glucose 
    Answer: A) Ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP)

19. How many molecules of CO2 are required to produce one molecule of glucose in the Calvin cycle?

    • A) 1

    • B) 2

    • C) 3

    • D) 6 
    Answer: D) 6

20. What is the role of NADP+ in photosynthesis?

    • A) It releases oxygen.

    • B) It acts as an electron carrier.

    • C) It fixes carbon dioxide.

    • D) It produces ATP. 
    Answer: B) It acts as an electron carrier.

21. Which component of photosystems captures light energy?

    • A) Reaction center chlorophyll

    • B) Antenna pigments

    • C) Electron transport chain

    • D) ATP synthase 
    Answer: B) Antenna pigments

22. What is the primary purpose of non-cyclic photophosphorylation?

    • A) To produce glucose

    • B) To generate ATP and NADPH for the Calvin cycle

    • C) To fix carbon dioxide

    • D) To produce oxygen 
    Answer: B) To generate ATP and NADPH for the Calvin cycle

23. In which cellular structure does the Calvin cycle occur?

    • A) Mitochondria

    • B) Thylakoids

    • C) Stroma of chloroplasts

    • D) Cytoplasm 
    Answer: C) Stroma of chloroplasts

24. What is released when water is split during photolysis?

    • A) Carbon dioxide

    • B) Oxygen and electrons

    • C) Glucose and ATP

    • D) NADPH 
    Answer: B) Oxygen and electrons

25. Which process directly uses sunlight to produce energy-rich compounds?

    • A) Calvin cycle

    • B) Glycolysis

    • C) Light-dependent reactions

    • D) Krebs cycle 
    Answer: C) Light-dependent reactions

26. What is the main product of the Calvin cycle after three turns?

    • A) Glucose

    • B) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P)

    • C) Ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP)

    • D) Oxygen 
    Answer: B) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P)

27. Which factor does NOT affect the rate of photosynthesis?

    • A) Temperature

    • B) Light intensity

    • C) Soil pH

    • D) Carbon dioxide concentration 
    Answer: C) Soil pH

28. What happens to RuBP at the beginning of the Calvin cycle?

    • A) It is phosphorylated.

    • B) It combines with CO2.

    • C) It is converted to glucose.

    • D) It is oxidized. 
    Answer: B) It combines with CO2.

29. Which molecule is considered a "sugar phosphate" produced during photosynthesis?

    • A) Ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP)

    • B) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P)

    • C) Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate

    • D) 3-phosphoglycerate (3-PGA)
     Answer: B) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P)

30. What role does ATP play in the Calvin cycle?

     • A)** It provides energy for sugar synthesis.

     • B)** It acts as an electron donor.

     • C)** It captures sunlight.

     • D)** It fixes carbon dioxide. 
     Answer: A) It provides energy for sugar synthesis.

31. Which part of photosynthesis releases oxygen into the atmosphere?

     • A)** Light-independent reactions

     • B)** Light-dependent reactions

     • C)** Glycolysis

     • D)** Krebs cycle 
     Answer: B) Light-dependent reactions

32. What is photophosphorylation?

     • A)** The process of fixing carbon dioxide

     • B)** The synthesis of ATP using light energy

     • C)** The breakdown of glucose

     • D)** The release of oxygen
     Answer: B) The synthesis of ATP using light energy

33. Which molecule serves as an electron donor during photosynthesis?

     • A)** Glucose

     • B)** Water

     • C)** Carbon dioxide

     • D)** Oxygen 
     Answer: B) Water

34. What is formed when carbon dioxide combines with RuBP in the Calvin cycle?

     • A)** 3-phosphoglycerate (3-PGA)

     • B)** Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P)

     • C)** Ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP)

     • D)** Glucose 
     Answer: A) 3-phosphoglycerate (3-PGA)

35. Which process occurs first in photosynthesis?

     • A)** Calvin cycle

     • B)** Light-dependent reactions

     • C)** Glycolysis

     • D)** Krebs cycle 
     Answer: B) Light-dependent reactions

36. Which component is NOT part of a photosystem?

     • A)** Reaction center

     • B)** Antenna complex

     • C)** Electron transport chain

     • D)** Chlorophyll 
     Answer: C) Electron transport chain

37. The enzyme RuBisCO catalyzes which reaction in photosynthesis?

     • A)** Photolysis of water

     • B)** Carbon fixation

     • C)** Synthesis of ATP

     • D)** Production of NADPH 
     Answer: B) Carbon fixation

38. How many molecules of G3P are produced for every three CO2 molecules fixed in the Calvin cycle?

     • A)** 1

     • B)** 2

     • C)** 3

     • D)** 6 
     Answer: A) 1

39. Which gas is consumed during photosynthesis?

     • A)** Oxygen

     • B)** Nitrogen

     • C)** Carbon dioxide

     • D)** Hydrogen 
     Answer: C) Carbon dioxide

40. In what form is energy stored during photosynthesis?

     • A)** Glucose

     • B)** ATP

     • C)** NADPH

     • D)** Both B and C 
     Answer: D) Both B and C

41. What happens to electrons as they move through the electron transport chain during photosynthesis?

     • A)** They gain energy and are used to make glucose.

     • B)** They lose energy and help pump protons into the thylakoid lumen.

     • C)** They are transferred to oxygen.

     • D)** They are stored in NADPH. 
     Answer: B) They lose energy and help pump protons into the thylakoid lumen.

42. What happens to RuBP after it reacts with CO2 in the Calvin cycle?

     • A)** It is converted to glucose.

     • B)** It regenerates to continue the cycle.

     • C)** It is broken down into ATP.

     • D)** It becomes a waste product. 
     Answer: B) It regenerates to continue the cycle.

43. What role do carotenoids play in photosynthesis?

     • A)** They capture sunlight for energy.

     • B)** They protect chlorophyll from damage by excess light.

     • C)** They fix carbon dioxide.

     • D)** They produce glucose. 
     Answer: B) They protect chlorophyll from damage by excess light.

44. Which type of phosphorylation occurs in both mitochondria and chloroplasts?

     • A)** Substrate-level phosphorylation

     • B)** Oxidative phosphorylation

     • C)** Photophosphorylation

     • D)** All types of phosphorylation 
     Answer: D) All types of phosphorylation

45. How many ATP molecules are used for every G3P molecule produced in the Calvin cycle?

     • A)** 1

     • B)** 2

     • C)** 3

     • D)** 5 
     Answer: C) 3

46. Which part of chloroplasts contains enzymes for the Calvin cycle?

     • A)** Thylakoids

     • B)** Grana

     • C)** Stroma

     • D)** Outer membrane 
     Answer: C) Stroma

47. What type of reaction occurs when chlorophyll absorbs photons?

     A)* Reduction*                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                             *
          *B)* Oxidation*     *C)* Hydrolysis*     *D)* Condensation*     * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * *
      * Answer:A)* Reduction*

48. *** Which molecule carries high-energy electrons from the light-dependent reactions to the Calvin cycle?
          *A)* ATP*        *B)* FADH2*      *C)* NADPH*      *D)* Glucose*
      * Answer:C)* NADPH*

49. *** In plants, what color wavelengths are least effective for photosynthesis?
          *A)* Blue*        *B)* Red*      *C)* Green*      *D)* Yellow*
      * Answer:C)* Green*

50. *** What happens to excess glucose produced during photosynthesis?
          *A)* It is released into the atmosphere.*      *B)* It is converted to starch.*      *C)* It is used for respiration.*      *D)* It is stored as cellulose.*
      * Answer:B)* It is converted to starch.*

Kingdom Plantae and Animalia

Question: Which of the following are naked-seeded plants?

A - Lycopsida
B - Angiospermae
C - Gymnospermae
D - Psilopsida

Answer: Gymnospermae

Explanation: Gymnosperms differ from angiosperms most obviously on the basis of the naked-seed habit in the former and the enclosure of seeds within a fruit in the latter. The pollen grain of gymnosperms, when shed from the microsporangium, has more than two cells (three in cycads and four in Ginkgo and conifers).

Kingdom Plantae and Animalia

Question: Endosperm of Pinus which belongs to class Gymnospermae is:

A - Haploid
B - Diploid
C - Triploid
D - Polyploid

Answer: Haploid

Explanation: Endosperm of Pinus which belongs to class Gymnospermae is Haploid.

Reproduction

Question: When a fetus is in the uterus, what carries oxygen away from the Placenta?

A - The amniotic fluid
B - The amniotic sac
C - The lining of the uterus
D - The umbilical cord

Answer: The umbilical cord

Explanation: In placental mammals, the umbilical cord (also called the navel string, birth cord or funiculus umbilicalis) is a conduit between the developing embryo or fetus and the placenta. During prenatal development, the umbilical cord is physiologically and genetically part of the fetus and, (in humans), normally contains two arteries (the umbilical arteries) and one vein (the umbilical vein), buried within Wharton's jelly. The umbilical vein supplies the fetus with oxygenated, nutrient-rich blood from the placenta. Conversely, the fetal heart pumps deoxygenated, nutrient-depleted blood through the umbilical arteries back to the placenta.

Reproduction

Question: In asexual reproduction offsprings are produced by?

A - Meiosis
B - Mitosis
C - Both A and B
D - None of these

Answer: Mitosis

Explanation: Asexual reproduction involves only mitosis.

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