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Mischief is dealt under

A. Section 426 of IPC

B. Section 427 of IPC

C. Section 428 of IPC

D. Section 429 of IPC

All except one is false statement about legal mens rea:

A. it refers to mental element necessary for the particular crime

B. the mental element may be either intention to do the immediate act or bring about the consequences

C. intention or recklessness as to the elements constituting the actus reus

D. intention can always be satisfactorily defined

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Assisting concealment or disposal of stolen property knowing it to be stolen is dealt under

A. Section 411 of IPC

B. Section 412 of IPC

C. Section 413 of IPC

D. Section 414 of IPC

The accused in order to evade arrest was holding D against her will and was using her body as a shield. He fired a shot­gun at the police officer who returned the fire in which D was killed. Which the following should be the first step of the Court on the question of causation?

A. The Court must immediately convict the accused

B. The Court must direct the jury to be sure that the accused fired the first shot

C. The police officer must be convicted

D. Both (A) and (B)

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C and F and F invited C to have a fix of his heroin. Each filled his own syringe and injected each other several times during one night. Next morning F died on the question of causation:

A. C must convicted of manslaughter

B. C must not be convicted of manslaughter

C. C can be convicted for the possession of heroin only

D. C is neither guilty of possessing heroin nor the death of F

Fraudulent removal or concealment of property, etc to prevent distribution among creditors is dealt under

A. Section 421 of IPC

B. Section 422 of IPC

C. Section 423 of IPC

D. Section 424 of IPC

The accused booked two cases containing heroin on a flight from City A to City B and then to City C. On reaching City C, he did not collect the heroin. He was charged with being knowingly concerned in the fraudu­lent evasion of restrictions on importation of cannabis under customs and excise laws. He was held guilty of the offence charged as he has brought about the importation by deliberate actions committed with a guilty intent. The accused took the victim to a hut and killed him striking over his head. In order to make it an accidental death the dead body was rolled over a cliff. The medical report revealed that death was due to exposure and it was not caused in the hut.

A. The accused is guilty of murder in both the cases

B. The accused is not guilty in the first case however is guilty of manslaughter in the second case

C. The accused is not guilty in neither of the cases

D. The accused is guilty in the first case and not in the second case

Why is defamation a tort?
a. Individuals have the right to be free from bodily harm.
b. Individuals have the right to conduct business without interference.
c. Individuals have the right to own property.
d. Individuals have the right to enjoy a good reputation.

Mens rea involves:

A. crimes of basic intent

B. crimes of speculative intent

C. crimes of specific intent

D. Both (A) and (C)

Extortion by threat of accusation of an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life, or imprisonment for ten years is dealt under

A. Section 385 of IPC

B. Section 386 of IPC

C. Section 387 of IPC

D. Section 388 of IPC

Intercourse by public servant with woman in his custody is dealt under

A. Section 373 B of IPC

B. Section 374 B of IPC

C. Section 375 B of IPC

D. Section 376 B of IPC

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Defamation involves:
a. using a weapon.
b. at least 5 people to be present.
c. a contract.
d. making false statements about someone.

Which of the following constitutes slander?
a. Melissa tells Roger that Connie stole $500 from the cash register at work, even though
Melissa knows this is not true.
b. Melissa writes an e‐mail to Roger falsely stating that Connie stole $500.
c. Diane calls Melissa a liar in court.
d. Dan tells Roger, his boss, that Melissa stole $500 from the cash register at work. Dan and
two other employees saw this.

A loud bass beat that can be heard through an apartment wall (from another apartment) at
midnight can be classified as

a. Nusiance
b. Trespass
c. Interference with contractual relations
d. Conversion

All are true except one concerning the duty of the Court in regard to the interpretation of the words of ambiguous import in a penal statute?

A. The court must ascertain if the offence charged is within the meaning of the words of the statute

B. If the only reasonable way of construing a penal statute without stretching its legal language is one, which goes against the accused, then it must be fully upheld in its entirety.

C. It is the duty of the Court to interpret words of ambiguous import in a broad and liberal sense

D. In case of penal statute is uncertain or ambiguous or at capable of two interpretations, the benefit of the ambiguity should go to the accused

The right to prosecution under the Indian Penal Code:

A. is affected by the provisions of other statutes

B. is not affected by the provisions of the other statutes

C. is not applicable under the provisions of the Companies Act

D. is not applicable in the areas of Mikir Hills

Intercourse by a man with his wife during separation is dealt under

A. Section 374 A of IPC

B. Section 375 A of IPC

C. Section 376 A of IPC

D. Section 377 A of IPC

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Q) The International criticism of civil jurisdiction over foreign subjects is largely overlooked because:

A) Civil jurisdiction doesn’t comprise issues of national importance.

B) The Courts have much claimed ground in terms of civil jurisdiction.

C) In a country where the Courts initiate litigation, usually the presence of the defendant is purely temporary and coincidental.

D) Some attribution can be given to the fact that public opinion is attracted much more towards criminal offences than civil cases.

Q) Judicial jurisdiction concerns the power of the courts of a particular country to try cases in which a foreign factor is present. There are a number of grounds upon which the courts of a state may claim to exercise such jurisdiction. In criminal matters these range from the territorial principle to the universality principle and in civil matters from the mere presence of the defendant in the country to the nationality and domicile principles. It is judicial jurisdiction which forms the most discussed aspect of jurisdiction and criminal questions are the most important manifestation of this.Although jurisdiction in civil matters is enforced in the last resort by the application of the sanctions of criminal law, there are a number of differences between civil and criminal issues in this context. In general it is fair to say that the exercise of civil jurisdiction has been claimed by states upon far wider grounds than has been the case in criminal matters, and the resultant reaction by other states much more muted. This is partly due to the fact that public opinion is far more easily roused where a person is tried abroad for criminal offences than if a person is involved in a civil case. In common law countries, such as the United States and Britain, the usual basis for jurisdiction in civil cases remains service of a writ upon the defendant within the country, even if the presence of the defendant is purely temporary and coincidental. In continental European countries on the other hand, the usual ground for jurisdiction is the habitual residence of the defendant in the particular state. Many countries, for instance the Netherlands, Denmark and Sweden, will allow their courts to exercise jurisdiction where the defendant in any action possesses assets in the state, while in matrimonial cases the commonly accepted ground for the exercise of jurisdiction is the domicile or residence of the party bringing the action. In view of, for example, the rarity of diplomatic protests and the relative absence of state discussions, some writers have concluded that customary international law does not prescribe any particular regulations as regards the restriction of courts’ jurisdiction in civil matters.

A) States have exercised claims over criminal issues on far more wider grounds than civil cases.

B) Judicial jurisdiction comprises the power of the domestic Courts of a given country, to preside over matters in which foreign factors exist.

C) The Courts of a State have only two grounds to claim the exercise of their judicial jurisdiction over foreign subjects.

D) Jurisdiction in civil matters is different from criminal matters since only civil matters can be enforced by sanctions.

Q) The best-known exponent of the __ is the eighteenth-century lawyer
Blackstone, who declared in his Commentaries that:
“The law of nations,wherever any question arises which is properly the object of its jurisdiction, is here adopted in its full extent by the common law, and it is held to be a part of the law of the land”

Q) Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the working of International Court of Justice (ICJ)?

A) The Court is competent to entertain a dispute only if the States concerned have accepted its jurisdiction.

B) States have no permanent representatives accredited to the Court.

C) The Court may entertain two types of cases namely contentious cases and advisory proceedings.

D) States as well as International organisations may become parties to contentious cases.

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Q) The International criticism of civil jurisdiction over foreign subjects is largely overlooked because:

A) Civil jurisdiction doesn’t comprise issues of national importance.

B) The Courts have much claimed ground in terms of civil jurisdiction.

C) In a country where the Courts initiate litigation, usually the presence of the defendant is purely temporary and coincidental.

D) Some attribution can be given to the fact that public opinion is attracted much more towards criminal offences than civil cases.

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Q) Cina is a country that has not had good relations with countries like Indaa, Germay, and Jpaan for the last few months due to which, Cina's government is facing economic, food crises. Due to this, Cina Army Force (CAF) announces war against Germay, resulting in a loss for Cina which now faced the suit of waging war against Germay. The verdict came out that Cina was herself responsible for the commission of waging war because Cina was the one who announced the war. Considering these facts, which of the following is correct?

A) A person shall not be criminally responsible if he or she orders, solicits or induces the commission of such a crime which in fact occurs or is attempted.

B) Such persons need not be in a position effectively to exercise control over or to direct the political or military action of a State.

C) Announcing a war does not amount to commissioning it and therefore, is not punishable.

D) The International Criminal Court has jurisdiction over natural persons pursuant to the Rome Statute of Individual Criminal Responsibility.

Q) Consider the following human rights, recognized under the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights:
1. People's right of self-determination and right to freely determine their political status.
2. People's right to freely dispose off their natural wealth and resources.
3. People's right to freely pursue their economic, social and cultural development
Which of these rights have found place in the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights also?

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Question International law actors possess substantive rights and duties which, in some instances, can result in legal responsibility. This tracks closely with the idea of legal personality; that is, that an actor is a legal person under the law. In applying these factors to corporations in international economic law, it is easy to see that in terms of rights, corporations enjoy a bounty of these. Many of these rights are found in international Investment Agreements (IIAs) and can include such rights as the right to national treatment, the right to most-favoured nation treatment, the right to fair and equitable treatment, the right to enjoy property free from expropriation, and the right to directly initiate investment arbitration in cases of state interference with their property, among others. Corporations do not enjoy similar rights under WTO law although they may enjoy the benefits of any reductions to trade barriers that their home state is able to obtain either through negotiations, dispute settlement, or other WTO mechanisms. Conversely, duties for corporations under international economic law are more difficult to find. Again, under WTO law, corporations do not bear direct duties as these agreements are directed at states not companies. IIAs are also not directed at companies but given the bounty of rights these agreements offer to corporations, it is somewhat surprising that the agreements do not prescribe corresponding duties. In fact, IIAs are notoriously silent in prescribing duties for corporations or foreign investors. That being said, IIA tribunals have found that corporations or foreign investors are required to comply with host state laws, establish investments in good faith and not illegally, refrain from engaging in fraud, and to engage in due diligence before establishing the investment. Some IIAs also prescribe specific duties on corporations or foreign investors such as refraining from engaging in corruption, respecting human rights, or engaging in environmental impact assessments, among others.
IIAs also confirm that corporations have international legal personality, in limited circumstances, since they can enforce their rights under IIAs by initiating investment arbitrations. Yet IIAs are less likely to prescribe legal responsibility for corporations if they fail to meet their (limited) duties under IIAs.

Based on the knowledge of existing legal regime under the WTO which of the following cannot be a true statement?

A) WTO regime affects state relations and per se does not entertain claims from private actors.

B) Though WTO does not take claims from private actors, that has no bearing on the fact that WTO may grant audience to private actors.

C) The WTO regime at present will not take claims or representations from individuals or private entities, but it may on its own motion interfere to grant reliefs to them.

D) A state can present case and claim dispute settlement on behalf of a company at the WTO forum.

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Question) Which of the following statements with regards to the promulgation of an Ordinance as under Article 123 of the Constitution is not true?

1) Article 123 of the Constitution empowers the President to promulgate an ordinance during recess of the Parliament .

2) An ordinance promulgated by the President, shall have the same effect as if it were an Act of the Parliament.

3) An Ordinance promulgated shall be laid before both houses of Parliament and shall cease to operate at the expiration of six weeks from the reassembly of Parliament.

4) Any Ordinance, promulgated by the President, shall not be withdrawn by him at any time after such promulgation, unless prior consultation with the Rajya Sabha.

1) Violation of Separation of Power is detrimental for the spirit of Indian Constitution and thus shall be converted into a statutory offence.

2) Violation of Separation of Power is not possible under the Indian Constitution due to its own quasi – federal nature.

3) Violation of Separation of Power would result in the infringement of Article 14 of the Indian Constitution

4) Both (A) and (B)

Question) r Which of the following is true regarding Article 50 of the Indian Constitution?

1) Article 50 directs the State to take steps to separate the Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State.

2) Article 50 directs the State to take steps to separate the Judiciary from the Legislative in the public services of the State.

3) Article 50 directs the State to take steps to separate the Legislative from the Executive in the public services of the State.

4) Article 50 directs the State to take steps to separate the Judiciary from both the Legislative and the Executive in the public services of the State.

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Question) In a case the Appellant had justified his action of firing at the deceased party stating that ‘he believed that him and Appellant 2 may be in grave danger and feared that they may be grievously hurt by the deceased party.’ Is it safe to say that while one is in imminent danger , they may not be expected to plan a defence in such situations and may even inflict any harm extending to death of the assailant while exercising self-defence?

1) Yes, while one is in imminent danger it is unreasonable to assume that they will follow a moral path.

2) No, causing death of any living being is wrong even if it is in self-defence, one must refrain from acting that aggressively.

3) Yes, it is reasonable to believe that one had acted in self-defense because of the fear of losing their life, or limb.

4)No, self-defence should only be used to the extent of finding a way to run away from such a situation, not for causing death.

Question) Section __ of the Indian Penal Code provides that if an offence is committed by any member of an unlawful assembly in prosecution of the common object of that assembly, or such as the members of that assembly knew to be likely to be committed in prosecution of that object, every person who, at the time of the committing of that offence, is a member of the same assembly, is guilty of that offence.

1) Section 34 of the Indian Penal Code.

2) Section 149 of the Indian Penal Code.

3) Section 506 of the Indian Penal Code.

4) Section 141 of the Indian Penal Code.

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