Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

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Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

10 Jan, 14:27

Answer: D
Soln:
● Durand Line is the international land border that stretches for about 1,600 miles (2,600 km) between Afghanistan and Pakistan. Hence, option D is correct.
● It was established in 1893 as the border between British India and the Emirate of Afghanistan, marking their respective spheres of influence.
● It is named for Sir Henry Mortimer Durand, the foreign secretary of British India, who induced Abdur Rahman Khan, the emir of Afghanistan, to agree to an international boundary.
● This line is not accepted by Afghanistan at present. It says that the line splits many native Pashtun families residing in the region for centuries. Of late, this has caused tensions between Pakistan and Afghanistan.

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Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

10 Jan, 14:18

5. Durand line, recently seen in news, forms the rough boundary between Afghanistan and which of the following countries?

514

Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

10 Jan, 14:18

Answer: A
Soln:
● The Washington Treaty – or North Atlantic Treaty – forms the basis of the North
Atlantic Treaty Organization – or NATO. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● The Treaty was signed in Washington D.C. on 4 April 1949 by 12 founding members.
● The Treaty derives its authority from Article 51 of the United Nations Charter, which
reaffirms the inherent right of independent states to individual or collective defence.
● Collective defence is at the heart of the Treaty and is enshrined in Article 5. It commits
members to protect each other and sets a spirit of solidarity within the Alliance. Hence,
statement 2 is correct.
● NATO’s purpose is to guarantee the freedom and security of its members through
political and military means.
○ POLITICAL – NATO promotes democratic values and enables members to consult
and cooperate on defence and security-related issues to solve problems, build trust
and, in the long run, prevent conflict.
○ MILITARY – NATO is committed to the peaceful resolution of disputes. If diplomatic
efforts fail, it has the military power to undertake crisis-management operations.
○ These are carried out under the collective defence clause of NATO's founding treaty
– Article 5 of the Washington Treaty or under a United Nations mandate, alone or in
cooperation with other countries and international organisations.

● NATO enlargement: NATO membership is open to “any other European state in a
position to further the principles of this Treaty and to contribute to the security of the
North Atlantic area.” Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

486

Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

10 Jan, 14:07

Answer: C
Soln:
● Rakhine State is the most western state in Myanmar and has a population of three
million. Hence, option C is correct.

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Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

10 Jan, 14:03

4. Consider the following statements about NATO.
1. The North Atlantic Treaty forms the basis of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization.
2. Collective defence is the goal behind this organisation.
3. It is open to countries in Africa and South America.

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Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

10 Jan, 13:46

3. Rakhine region, recently seen in the news, belongs to which of the following countries?

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Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

10 Jan, 13:46

Answer: A
Soln:
● The Z-Morh tunnel is set to become the first major milestone in the effort to build a
strategic corridor between Kashmir and Ladakh which is open all through the year.
Hence, option A is correct.

● It is built under the mountain glacier of Thajiwas Glacier between Gagangir and
Sonamarg, the tunnel bypasses the landslide- and avalanche-prone pockets of the road.
● An intelligent traffic management system will make it easier to control the flow of vehicles
and will also open up the Thajiwas Glacier and Sindh River for adventure tourism.
● The 6.5-km long two-lane tunnel is a key feature of the strategic access route to Ladakh.
● The main tunnel is 10.8 metres wide, with a modified horseshoe-shaped escape tunnel of
7.5 metres, D-shaped ventilation tunnel of 8.3 metres, two major culverts of 110 metres and
270 metres length, and one small culvert which is 30 metres long.
● The Z-Morh will lead towards the Zojila tunnel, which is being constructed nearby.

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Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

10 Jan, 13:37

2. Z-Morh tunnel, recently seen in news, connects which of the following regions of India?

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Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

10 Jan, 13:37

Answer: B
Soln:
Pravasi Bharatiya Divas
● 9 January commemorates the return of Mahatma Gandhi from South Africa to India in
1915. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● To mark this day, the tradition of celebrating Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD) started in 2003.
● 1st PBD Convention was organised on 9 January 2003 to mark the contribution of the
overseas Indian community to the development of India.
● Since 2015, under a revised format, PBD Convention has been organised once every 2
years. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
● 17 Pravasi Bharatiya Divas Conventions have been organised till date. 17th PBD was held
from 8 – 10 January 2023 in Indore, Madhya Pradesh. The theme of the 17th PBD
Convention was "Diaspora: Reliable Partners for India's Progress in Amrit Kaal".
● The 18th PBD Convention will be held from 8 – 10 January 2025 in Bhubaneswar,
Odisha. The theme of the 18th PBD Convention is "Diaspora's Contribution to a Viksit
Bharat".
● The Pravasi Bharatiya Samman Award (PBSA) is the highest honour conferred on
overseas Indians. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
● PBSA is conferred by the Hon’ble President of India as part of the Pravasi Bharatiya Divas
Convention on Non-Resident Indians, Persons of Indian Origin or an
organization/institution established and run by the Non-Resident Indians or Persons of
Indian Origin in recognition of their outstanding achievements both in India and abroad.
● The Pravasi Bharatiya Samman Awards will be conferred by the Hon’ble President of
India at the PBD Convention in the Valedictory Session of the Pravasi Bharatiya Divas
celebrations.

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Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

10 Jan, 13:25

1. Consider the following statements about ‘Pravasi Bharatiya Divas’.
1. The day commemorates the return of Mahatma Gandhi from South Africa to India in
1915.
2. The Pravasi Bharatiya Samman Award (PBSA) is the highest honour conferred on
overseas Indians.
3. A convention is organised once every year to mark the contribution of the overseas
Indian community to the development of India.

413

Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

09 Jan, 06:28

Answer: A
Explanation
● The Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF) refers to the uniform nomenclature of seven
security forces in India which function under the administrative control of the Ministry of
Home Affairs (MHA). They are
○ Assam Rifles (AR)
○ Border Security Force (BSF)
○ Central Industrial Security Force (CISF)
○ Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)
○ Indo Tibetan Border Police (ITBP)
○ National Security Guard (NSG) and
○ Seema Suraksha Bal (SSB).
● Of the CAPFs, the AR, BSF, ITBP and SSB are Border Guarding Forces. The NSG is a
commando trained force Organisation in India and is used for special operations. The
CISF provides security and protection to industrial undertakings and vital
installations. The CRPF is deployed in aid of civil power in matters relating to
maintenance of law and order, internal security and counter-insurgency.
● The CAPF’s are headed by DGP rank officers.

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Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

09 Jan, 06:02

5. Which of the following CAPFs is/are responsible for guarding India's international borders?
1) Border Security Force (BSF)
2) Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)
3) Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP)
4) Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB)

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Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

09 Jan, 05:59

Answer: D
Explanation
Both the statements are incorrect.
● The National Center for Disease Control (NCDC) is under administrative control of the
Director General of Health Services, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

● NCDC started as a malaria institute in 1909. Later, the institute expanded its focus to other
diseases with a larger mandate of controlling emerging and re-emerging diseases.
● The Institute takes a leading role in undertaking investigations of disease outbreaks all
over the country employing epidemiological and diagnostic tools.
● The headquarters of NCDC is located in New Delhi.

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Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

09 Jan, 05:35

4. Consider the following statements about the National Center for Disease Control (NCDC)
1) It primarily aims to conduct agricultural research.
2) It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.

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Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

28 Dec, 05:59

Answer: C
Explanation:
● Model Prisons Act 2023: Prison is a State subject and so the Union Government has come
up with this model to act as a framework for prison management. Hence, statements 1 and
2 are correct.
● The salient features of this act are,
○ Provision for security assessment and segregation of prisoners, individual sentence
planning,
○ Grievance redressal, prison development board, attitudinal change towards
prisoners.
○ Provision of separate accommodation for women prisoners, transgender, etc.
○ Provision for use of technology in prison administration with a view to bring
transparency in prison administration.
○ Provision for video conferencing with courts, scientiﬁc and technological
interventions in prisons, etc.
○ Provision of punishment for prisoners and jail staﬀ for use of prohibited items like
mobile phones etc. in jails.
○ Provision regarding establishment and management of high security jail, open jail
(open and semi open), etc.
○ Provision for protecting the society from the criminal activities of hardened criminals and habitual offenders, etc.
○ Provision for legal aid to prisoners, provision of parole, furlough and premature
release etc. to incentivise good conduct.
○ Focus on vocational training and skill development of prisoners and their reintegration into the society.

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Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

28 Dec, 05:31

5. Consider the following statements.
1. The Union Government passed Model Prisons Act 2023 to act as a framework for prison
management.
2. Prison is a State subject under the Indian constitution.

552

Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

28 Dec, 05:29

Answer: B
Explanation:
● Lok Adalat (people’s courts) is a body established by the government to settle disputes
through conciliation and compromise.
● Lok Adalat is an alternative method of dispute resolution. It is a forum where disputes
or cases pending in the court of law or at the pre-litigation stage are settled amicably.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
● Lok Adalats have been given statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act,
1987. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

● Under the Act, the award made by the Lok Adalats is deemed to be a decree of a civil
court and is final and binding on all parties and no appeal lies against such an award
before any court of law. Hence statement 3 is correct.
● If the parties are not satisfied with the award of the Lok Adalat, though there is no
provision for an appeal against such an award, they are free to initiate litigation by
approaching the court of appropriate jurisdiction by filing a case by following the required
procedure, in exercise of their right to litigate.

548

Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

28 Dec, 05:01

4. Consider the following statements with reference to the Lok Adalats.
1. Lok Adalat serves as an alternative method of dispute resolution.
2. Lok Adalats are constitutional bodies.
3. The award made by the Lok Adalats is final and binding on all parties and no appeal lies
against such an award before any court of law.

389

Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

28 Dec, 05:01

Answer: A
Explanation:
● The United Nations Peacekeeping Forces are employed by the UN to maintain or re-
establish peace in an area of armed conflict.
● The UN may engage in conflicts between states as well as in struggles within states. The
UN acts as an impartial third party in order to prepare the ground for a settlement of the
issues that have provoked armed conflict.
● The three basic principles that guide U.N.’s Peacekeeping missions are:
○ Consent of the parties
○ Impartiality
○ Non-use of force except in self-defence and defence of the mandate.
● The UN Peacekeeping Forces may only be employed when both parties to a conflict
accept their presence. Hence statement 1 is correct.
● The Peacekeeping Forces are subordinate to the leadership of the United Nations. They
are normally deployed as a consequence of a UN Security Council decision. However, on
occasion, the initiative has been taken by the General Assembly. Operational control
belongs to the Secretary-General and his secretariat. Hence statements 2 and 3 are
incorrect.
● The first UN peacekeeping mission was a team of observers deployed to the Middle East in
1948, during the 1948 Arab–Israeli War.

389

Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

28 Dec, 04:31

3. Consider the following statements about The United Nations Peacekeeping Forces.
1) The UN Peacekeeping Forces may only be employed when both parties to a conflict accept
their presence.
2) The operational control of the force belongs to the United Nations Security Council.
3) The Force is deployed only after an UN Security Council decision.

346

Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

28 Dec, 04:29

Answer: D
Explanation:
● Copyright is a legal term used to describe the rights that creators have over their literary
and artistic works. Hence statement 1 is correct.
● Works covered by copyright range from books, music, paintings, sculpture and films, to
computer programs, databases, advertisements, maps and technical drawings. Hence
statement 2 is correct.

334

Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

28 Dec, 04:02

2. Consider the following statements.
1) Copyright can be used to describe the rights that creators have over their literary works.
2) Paintings and sculptures can be protected using copyright.

357

Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

28 Dec, 03:59

Answer: C
Explanation:
● GovAI refers to a novel concept of applying artificial intelligence (AI) in governance to
enhance the efficiency, transparency, and effectiveness of government operations, decision-
making, and service delivery. Hence answer is option C.
● It aims to use AI-driven technologies, such as machine learning models, natural language
processing, and predictive analytics, to transform governance into a more responsive, data-
driven, and inclusive process.

406

Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

28 Dec, 03:29

1. GovAI is a

457

Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

27 Dec, 16:14

Answer: A
Explanation:
● Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP): Part IV of the Constitution contains DPSPs
aimed at achieving social and economic justice.
● Article 39 (b): The State shall, in particular, direct its policy towards securing– that the
ownership and control of the material resources of the community are so distributed as best
to sub serve the common good.
● Article 39 (c): The State shall, in particular, direct its policy towards securing– that the
operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means
of production to the common detriment.
● Hence statement 1 is correct.
● Right to Property: Initially, Articles 19(1)(f) and 31 guaranteed the right to property as a
Fundamental Right.
● Article 31C was added through the 25th amendment in 1971. It provided an exception
that laws made to fulfil the principles under Articles 39(b) and (c) shall not be void on the
ground that it violated Fundamental Rights including right to property.
● In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), a 13-judge Bench of the Supreme Court upheld
the validity of Article 31C but made it subject to judicial review.

○ It also said that property rights could not be arbitrarily overridden.
● Right to property was omitted from the Fundamental rights and then made a
constitutional right under Article 300A, requiring any government acquisition to be for
public purposes and accompanied by adequate compensation. Hence statement 2 is
incorrect.

608

Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

27 Dec, 16:06

5. Consider the following statements.
1. Articles 39 (b) and 39 (c) are derived from socialistic principles.
2. Right to property is a fundamental right.

446

Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

27 Dec, 16:04

Answer: C
Explanation:
● Telecommunications Dispute Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT) was
established in 2000 as a statutory body to adjudicate disputes and dispose of
appeals to protect the interests of service providers and consumers of the telecom
sector. Hence statement 1 is correct.
● At present, the Tribunal exercises jurisdiction over Telecom, Broadcasting, IT and
Airport tariff matters under the TRAI Act, 1997, the Information Technology Act,
2008 and the Airport Economic Regulatory Authority of India Act, 2008. Hence
statement 2 is correct.
● The Tribunal consists of a Chairperson and two Members appointed by the
Central Government. The Chairperson should be or should have been a Judge of
the Supreme Court or the Chief Justice of a High Court.
● Appeals against the decisions of the Data Protection Board of India will lie with
Telecommunications Dispute Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT).
Hence statement 3 is correct.

474

Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

16 Nov, 06:46

5. Consider the following statements about The Comprehensive and Progressive Agreement
for Trans-Pacific Partnership (CPTPP).
1) It is a free trade agreement (FTA) between countries around the Pacific Rim.
2) China is a party to the CPTPP.

351

Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

16 Nov, 06:45

Answer: C
Explanation
● A person to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court should have the following
qualifications
○ He should be a citizen of India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
○ He should have been a judge of a High Court (or high courts in succession) for five
years; or
○ He should have been an advocate of a High Court (or High Courts in succession)
for ten years; or (Hence, statement 3 is correct)
○ He should be a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the president.
It’s to be noted that the Constitution has not prescribed a minimum age for appointment as a
judge of the Supreme Court. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

325

Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

16 Nov, 06:31

Answer: B
Explanation
Global Digital Compact
What’s in the news?
● In the recently concluded ‘Summit of the Future’ organised by the United
Nations, member countries adopted the ‘Global Digital Compact’ (GDC). Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
● This ambitious instrument focuses on the potential of digital technologies, with
the specific intention to harness and regulate them for the common good.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
What is the GDC?
● The GDC is not a binding law but a diplomatic instrument with a set of shared
goals for governments, institutions, firms, and other stakeholders to bear in mind.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
● The GDC is a collaborative project with the objective of ensuring human
oversight of technologies in ways that advance sustainable development.
● To meet the Compact’s goals, UN member countries have committed to establish
two panels — an ‘Independent International Scientific Panel on AI [Artificial
Intelligence]’ and a panel for ‘Global Dialogue on AI Governance’.
● To address the digital divide, the GDC proposes “digital public goods” that will
include open-source software, open data, and open AI models.
○ Such infrastructure involves the development and use of shared digital
systems according to specific priorities and needs of stakeholders.

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Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

16 Nov, 06:31

4. Consider the following statements about appointment of Supreme Court Judges.
1) He/She must be a citizen of India.
2) Minimum age for being a judge in the Supreme Court is 40 years.
3) He/she should have been an advocate of a High Court for ten years.

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Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

16 Nov, 06:01

Answer: B
● NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar) is an Earth-observation satellite jointly
developed by U.S. space agency NASA and ISRO under a partnership agreement signed
in 2014. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● The 2,800 kilograms satellite consists of both L-band and S-band synthetic aperture radar
(SAR) instruments, which makes it a dual-frequency imaging radar satellite. Hence,
statement 2 is incorrect.
● While NASA has provided the L-band radar, GPS, a high-capacity solid-state recorder to
store data, and a payload data subsystem, ISRO has provided the S-band radar, the GSLV
launch system and spacecraft.
● Another important component of the satellite is its large 39-foot stationary antenna
reflector. Made of a gold-plated wire mesh, the reflector will be used to focus the radar
signals emitted and received by the upward-facing feed on the instrument structure.
What is the mission?
● Once launched into space, NISAR will observe subtle changes in Earth’s surfaces,
helping researchers better understand the causes and consequences of such
phenomena.
● Designed as a low earth orbit (LEO) observatory, NISAR will map the entire globe in 12
days and provide spatially and temporally consistent data for understanding changes in
Earth’s ecosystems, ice mass, vegetation biomass, sea level rise, groundwater and natural
hazards, including earthquakes, tsunamis, volcanoes and landslides. Hence, statement 3 is
correct.
● Synthetic Aperture Radar refers to a technique for producing high-resolution images.
Because of the precision, the radar can penetrate clouds and darkness, which means that it
can collect data day and night in any weather.

232

Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

16 Nov, 06:01

3. Consider the following statements about the Global Digital Compact.
1) It evolved from the ‘Summit of the Future’ organised by the United Nations.
2) It intends to harness and regulate digital technologies for the common good.
3) It is binding on all its members.

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Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

16 Nov, 05:46

2. Consider the following statements about The NISAR Satellite.
1) It is jointly developed by NASA and ISRO.
2) It is a mono-frequency imaging radar satellite.
3) The Satellite can provide data for understanding changes in Earth’s ecosystems and natural
hazards.

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Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

16 Nov, 05:45

Answer: D
Explanation

● The best-known of these is the “Red Notice”, a notification that a member state would like
someone arrested. Hence, answer is option D.
● A special category of notices known as the “Interpol — United Nations Security Council
Special Notice” is issued for entities and individuals who are the targets of UN Security
Council Sanctions Committees.
About Interpol
● Founded in 1923, INTERPOL is the world’s largest international police organization
made up of 196 member countries (including India).
● It is not a police force in the traditional sense—its agents are not able to arrest criminals.

● Instead, it is more of an information-sharing network, providing a way for national police
forces to co-operate effectively and tackle international crime ranging from human
trafficking and terrorism to money laundering and illegal art dealing.
● The organization, based in Lyon, France, operates centralized criminal databases that
contain fingerprint records, DNA samples and stolen documents.

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Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

16 Nov, 05:26

1. “Red Notice”, a notification that a member state would like someone arrested, is issued by

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Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

15 Nov, 12:58

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Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

15 Nov, 12:56

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469

Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

15 Nov, 07:42

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=TJQ4vv8hHq4

525

Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

14 Nov, 08:01

Answer: B
Explanation:
● The S-400 Triumf is a mobile surface-to-air missile (SAM) system developed by
Russia. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.
● The system can engage all types of aerial targets including aircraft, unmanned aerial
vehicles (UAV) and ballistic and cruise missiles within the range of 400km, at an
altitude of up to 30km.
● The system can track 100 airborne targets and engage six of them simultaneously.
● The S-400’s mission set and capabilities are roughly comparable to the famed US
Patriot system. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Why in News?
● India is set to receive the remaining two squadrons of the S-400 air defence missile
system by 2025.
Background
● India had contracted five S-400 Triumf regiments from Russia under a $5.43
billion deal signed in 2018.
● As of now, India has received three squadrons of the air defence system which have
been operationalised and deployed along the borders with China and Pakistan.

683

Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

14 Nov, 07:31

5. Consider the following statements about the S-400 missile.
1) It is a mobile surface-to-air missile.
2) It was developed by China.
3) Its capabilities are roughly comparable with the USA Patriot.

482

Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

14 Nov, 07:29

D. None
Answer: A
Explanation
● Mohiniyattam is a classical dance form originating from the state of Kerala. Hence,
statement 3 is incorrect.
● It is traditionally a solo dance performed by women after extensive training.
● The dance gets its name from Mohini – the female enchantress avatar of the Hindu deity
Vishnu.
● The roots of Mohiniyattam are in the Natya Shastra (the ancient Hindu Sanskrit text on
performance arts). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● It follows the Lasya style described in Natya Shastra, ie, a dance which is delicate and
feminine.
● It comprises delicate footsteps, undulating body movements, and subtle yet poignant
facial expressions.
● Mohiniyattam emotes a play through dancing and singing, where the language of the song
texts is Manipravala, a mixture of Malayalam and Sanskrit. Hence, statement 2 is
incorrect.
● The musical instruments usually used in Mohiniyattam are Mridangam or Madhalam
(barrel drum), Idakka (hourglass drum), flute, Veena, and Kuzhitalam (cymbals).

350

Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

14 Nov, 07:01

Answer: D

Explanation
Appointment of CJI
● The Chief Justice of India and the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the
President under Article 124 (2) of the Constitution.
● As per the convention, the senior most Judge of the Supreme Court (based on years of
experience as a judge in the apex court) considered fit to hold the office will be appointed as
the Chief Justice of India (CJI). Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
● This convention was violated in 1973 when A.N.Ray was appointed as the Chief Justice of
India by superseding three senior judges. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
● Later, the Supreme Court in the Second Judges Case (1993), ruled that the senior most
judge of the Supreme Court should alone be appointed to the office of the chief justice of
India.
Role of Central Government in the appointment
● The final decision on appointing the next CJI technically rests with the Centre.
● By convention, the government generally follows the recommendation of the sitting
CJI regarding their successor.

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Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

14 Nov, 07:01

4. Consider the following statements about Mohiniyattam.
1) Roots of this dance form are found in Natya Shastra.
2) It also involves singing in malayalam language.
3) It is a classical dance form from Karnataka.

290

Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

14 Nov, 06:31

3. Consider the following statements about the appointment of Chief Justice of India
1) As per the Constitution, the senior most Judge of the Supreme Court is appointed as the
Chief Justice of India.
2) This seniority principle has never been violated in appointing the Chief Justice.

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Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

14 Nov, 06:28

Answer: C
● Fluorescent Nanodiamonds (FNDs) are nanometre-sized diamonds made of
carbon nanoparticles. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● They are produced in a process that involves high temperature and high
pressure. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
● FNDs are stable under light and aren’t toxic to living things, so they have many
applications in high-resolution imaging, microscale temperature sensing, and
correlative microscopy, among others. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
● In biology, scientists use FNDs to track cells and their progeny over long
periods.

300

Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

14 Nov, 06:02

Answer: C
Explanation
What is Geo engineering?
● It refers to deliberate, large-scale intervention carried out in the Earth’s natural
systems to reverse the impacts of climate change. Hence, answer is option C.
● This involves techniques to physically manipulate the global climate to cool the planet.
● Geo engineering technologies mainly consist of Carbon Dioxide removal technologies and
Solar radiation management.

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2. Consider the following statements about Fluorescent Nanodiamonds.
1) They are made up of carbon nanoparticles.
2) They are produced in a process involving high temperature and high pressure.
3) They have applications in high-resolution imaging.

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1. Which of the following closely describes ‘Geo engineering’?

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Answer: C
Explanation:
About Enforcement Directorate
● It was constituted in 1956 for handling Exchange Control Laws violations under the
Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA).
● At present, the administrative control of the Enforcement Directorate is with the
Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
● The ED today is a multi-disciplinary organization mandated with investigation of the
offense of money laundering and violations of foreign exchange laws.
Statutory Functions
● The statutory functions of the Directorate include enforcement of following Acts:
1. The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA)
2. The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA)
3. The Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 (FEOA)
4. Sponsoring agency under COFEPOSA. Hence, answer is option C.
Why in News?
● The Enforcement Directorate (ED) recently conducted extensive raids on Amazon and
Flipkart vendor locations in multiple cities across India. These searches were part of an
ongoing investigation under the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), prompted
by allegations of violating India's Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) regulations.

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13 Nov, 07:31

5. Consider the following:
1) The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA)
2) The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA)
3) The Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 (FEOA)

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Answer: B
Explanation
About RCEP
● Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) is a free trade agreement between
15 Asia-Pacific nations.

● The signatory countries include 10 Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)
members — Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, Philippines,
Singapore, Thailand and Vietnam — and their five trade partners — Australia, China,
Japan, South Korea and New Zealand. Hence, answer is option B.
● RCEP entered into force in 2022.
● India was initially involved in the negotiations. However, India withdrew from the
negotiations in 2019 amid concerns that elimination of tariffs would open India’s markets to
imports, which in turn could harm local producers.
Why in News?
● Niti Aayog CEO BVR Subrahmanyam said that India should be a part of the Regional
Comprehensive Economic Partnership and Comprehensive and Progressive
Agreement for Trans-Pacific Partnership.

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08 Nov, 10:02

Answer: B
Explanation:
● Disqualification is done when:
○ Member voluntarily gives up party membership; Hence, statement 1 is correct.
○ If a member violates a direction (whip) issued by his party to vote in a particular
way or to abstain from voting.
○ If an independent candidate joins any political party after their election to
legislature; Hence, statement 2 is correct.
○ If a nominated member joins a party after 6 months of his/her nomination.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

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08 Nov, 09:31

Answer: A
Explanation
Startup India initiative
● The Startup India initiative of the Government of India envisages building a robust Start-
up ecosystem in the country for nurturing innovation and providing opportunities to
budding entrepreneurs.

● Since the launch of the initiative, Startup India has rolled out several programs with the
objective of supporting entrepreneurs, and transforming India into a country of job
creators instead of job seekers. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Why in News?
● Since the launch of the Startup India initiative in 2016, the Department for Promotion of
Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce & Industry, has recognised
98,119 entities as startups.
What is a DPIIT-recognized startup?
● An entity shall be considered a “Startup” –
1. If it’s incorporated as either Private Limited Company or Registered
Partnership Firm or Limited Liability Partnership. A sole proprietorship or a
public limited company is not eligible as startup.
2. If it is up to 10 years from the date of its incorporation/registration.
3. If its turnover for any of the financial years has not exceeded INR 100 crore
4. If it is working towards innovation, development or improvement of products or
processes or services, or if it is a scalable business model with a high potential of
employment generation or wealth creation.
5. Should not have been formed by splitting up or reconstruction of a business
already in existence. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

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08 Nov, 09:31

5. With reference to Anti-defection law, consider the following statements.
1) A member voluntarily gives up party membership.
2) An independent candidate joins any political party after their election to legislature.
3) A nominated member joins a party before 6 months from his/her nomination.

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08 Nov, 09:01

4. Consider the following statements about Startups in India.
1) Startup India Initiative objectivizes transforming India into a country of job creators instead
of job seekers.
2) Entities formed by splitting up an existing business are eligible to be recognized as a startup
by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT).

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Answer: C
Explanation
● The Finance Commission is a constitutional body set up under Article 280 of the
Constitution. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● Under Article 280, the President of India is required to constitute a Finance Commission at
an interval of five years or earlier.
● The First Finance Commission was constituted in 1952 under the chairmanship of K.C.
Neogy.
What are the functions of the Finance Commission?
● It is the duty of the Commission to make recommendations to the President as to—
○ the distribution of tax proceeds between the Union and the States and the share of
each state.
○ the principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the
States out of the Consolidated Fund of India; Hence, statement 2 is correct.
○ the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to
supplement the resources of the Panchayats in the State on the basis of the
recommendations made by the Finance Commission of the State;
○ the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to
supplement the resources of the Municipalities in the State on the basis of the
recommendations made by the Finance Commission of the State;
○ any other matter referred to the Commission by the President in the interests of
sound finance.

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08 Nov, 08:46

3. With reference to the Finance Commission, consider the following statements.
1) The Commission is a constitutional body.
2) The Commission recommends the principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the
revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India.

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Answer: B
Explanation:
● PM Vishwakarma is a Central Sector Scheme launched in 2023 to provide end-to-end
support to artisans and craftspeople who work with their hands and tools. Hence,
statement 2 is correct.
● The scheme with an outlay of Rs 13,000 crore is fully funded by the Central
government. The Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprise is the nodal ministry of
the scheme. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● The prime focus of PM Vishwakarma is at improving the quality as well as the reach of
products and services of artisans and craftspeople and to ensure that they are integrated
with the domestic and global value chains.
● The scheme will provide support to artisans and craftspeople of rural and urban areas
across India. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
● Eighteen traditional crafts will be covered under PM Vishwakarma. These include (i)
Carpenter; (ii) Boat Maker; (iii) Armourer; (iv) Blacksmith ; (v) Hammer and Tool Kit
Maker; (vi) Locksmith; (vii) Goldsmith; (viii) Potter; (ix) Sculptor, Stone breaker; (x)
Cobbler (Shoesmith/ Footwear artisan); (xi) Mason (Rajmistri); (xii) Basket/Mat/Broom
Maker/Coir Weaver; (xiii) Doll & Toy Maker (Traditional); (xiv) Barber; (xv) Garland maker;
(xvi) Washerman; (xvii) Tailor; and (xviii) Fishing Net Maker.

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08 Nov, 08:30

2. Consider the following statements with reference to the PM Vishwakarma scheme.
1) The scheme is fully funded by the central government.
2) It provides end-to-end support to artisans who work with their hands and tools.
3) The scheme will provide support to artisans only in rural areas.

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Answer: C
Explanation
● Miyawaki is a technique of growing dense plantations in a short time. This method
originated in Japan and is now increasingly adopted in other parts of the world. It is named
after the Japanese botanist and plant ecologist Akira Miyawaki.
● With this method of plantation, an urban forest can grow within a short span of 20-30
years while a conventional forest takes around 200-300 years to grow naturally. Hence,
answer is option C.
● In the Miyawaki technique, various native species of plants are planted close to each
other so that the greens receive sunlight only from the top and grow upwards rather than
sideways. It helps in the prevention of the growth of weeds.
● As a result, the plantation becomes approximately 30 times denser, grows 10 times faster
and becomes maintenance-free after a span of 3 years.

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1. The “Miyawaki method” is well known for the

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Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

08 Nov, 07:20

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08 Nov, 04:28

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Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

07 Nov, 09:31

Answer: C
Explanation:
What happens when the US Fed increases interest rates?
● When the US Federal Reserve (Fed) increases its interest rates, the difference between
the interest rates of the two countries reduces (known as interest rate differential),
thus making India less attractive for foreign investors.
● It results in outflow of foreign investments from India and other emerging economies.
Hence, event 1 is correct.
○ As investors pull out money, the demand for the US dollar increases, causing the
Indian rupee to weaken. Hence, event 2 is correct.
○ A weaker rupee increases the cost of imports like crude oil, contributing to
inflationary pressures in India. Hence, event 3 is incorrect.
○ Higher US rates make it more expensive for Indian companies with dollar-
denominated debt to repay loans, impacting their balance sheets.
○ Global investors rebalancing their portfolios in response to Fed rate hikes can lead
to volatility in Indian stock markets. Hence, event 4 is correct.

When US Fed reduces interest rates

● Similarly, when the US Federal Reserve decreases its interest rates, the interest rate
differential widens resulting in capital inflows into emerging markets like India, as
investors seek higher returns.
● Increased capital inflows can lead to an appreciation of the Indian rupee, making
imports cheaper and reducing inflationary pressures.

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Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

07 Nov, 09:01

Answer: C
Explanation
● In order to impart digital literacy in the rural areas, PMGDISHA was launched by the
Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology with the aim to empower at least
one person per rural household with crucial digital literacy skills. Hence, statements 1
and 2 are correct.
● Launched in 2017, the Scheme envisages to make six crore persons in rural areas, across
States/UTs, digitally literate, reaching to around 40% of rural households.
● The scheme aims at bridging the rural-urban digital divide, with special emphasis on
marginalised sections of society. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
● The Scheme would empower the citizens in rural areas by training them to operate
computer or digital access devices (like tablets, smart phones etc.), send and receive e-mails,
browse Internet, access Government services, search for information, undertake digital
payment etc. and hence enable them to use Information Technology and related applications
especially Digital Payments to actively participate in the process of nation building.
● The scheme is implemented by CSC e-Governance Services India Limited, a Special
Purpose Vehicle set up by the Ministry of Electronics IT, with active collaboration of all
the State Governments and UT Administrations.

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Answer: B
Explanation
● The Financial Services Institutions Bureau has been constituted effective from July 01, 2022, as an autonomous body of Government of India.
● It replaced the Banks Board Bureau (BBB).
● FSIB’s mandate is recommending persons for appointment as whole-time directors and non-executive chairpersons on the Board of Public Sector Banks (PSBs), Public Sector Financial Institutions (FIs) and Public Sector Insurance Companies (PSIs) and recommend measures to improve Corporate Governance in these Institutions. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● FSIB is headed by a chairman, a central government nominee. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
● Other functions of the Bureau are :-
○ To advise the Government on matters relating to appointments, transfer or extension of term of office and termination of services of the said directors;
○ To advise the Government on the desired management structure at the Board level for PSBs, FIs and PSIs;
○ To build a databank containing data related to the performance of PSBs, FIs and PSIs;
○ To advise the Government on formulation and enforcement of a code of conduct and ethics for whole-time directors in PSBs, FIs and PSIs; Hence, statement 3 is correct.
○ To advise the Government on evolving suitable training and development programmes for management personnel in PSBs, FIs and PSIs

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Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

01 Nov, 09:28

5. With reference to the Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB), consider the following statements.
1) FSIB recommends persons for appointment as directors of Public Sector Banks.
2) FSIB is headed by the Governor of Reserve Bank of India.
3) It also advises the Government on evolving suitable training and development programmes for management personnel in Public Sector Banks.

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Answer: A
Explanation
● Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) means investing in the financial assets of a foreign country, such as stocks or bonds available on an exchange.
● It does not provide the investor with direct ownership of a company's assets.
● FPI is often referred to as “hot money” because of its tendency to flee at the first signs of trouble in an economy. Hence, answer is option A.

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4. Consider the following factors.
Statement -I:
Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) is often referred to as “hot money”.
Statement -II:
It tends to flee at the first signs of trouble in an economy.

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Answer: A
Explanation
● Launched in 2015 to promote entrepreneurship, Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY) provides loans upto Rs. 10 lakh to the non-corporate, non-farm small/micro enterprises. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● PMMY aims to “fund the unfunded” by bringing such enterprises to the formal financial system and extending affordable credit to them.
● Under PMMY collateral free loans of upto Rs. 10 Lakh are extended by Member Lending Institutions (MLIs) viz Scheduled Commercial Banks, Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), Small Finance Banks (SFBs), Non Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs), Micro Finance Institutions (MFIs) etc. Hence, statement 2 is correct and statement 3 is incorrect.
● The loans are given for income generating activities in manufacturing, trading and services sectors and for activities allied to agriculture.
● Mudra loans are offered in four categories namely, ‘Shishu’, ‘Kishore’, ‘Tarun’ and ‘Tarun Plus’ which signifies the stage of growth or development and funding needs of the borrowers:-
○ Shishu : covering loans upto Rs. 50,000/-
○ Kishore : covering loans above Rs. 50,000/- and upto Rs. 5 lakh
○ Tarun : covering loans above Rs. 5 lakh and upto Rs. 10 lakh.
○ Tarun Plus: covering loans above Rs. 10 lakh and upto Rs. 20 lakh. (would be available to entrepreneurs who have availed and successfully repaid previous loans under the Tarun category)
● With an objective to promote entrepreneurship among the new generation aspiring youth, it is ensured that more focus is given to Shishu Category loans and then Kishore and Tarun categories.

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3. With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY), consider the following statements.
1) PMMY provides loans to the non-corporate, non-farm small/micro enterprises.
2) The loans are awarded on a collateral-free basis.
3) Under PMMY, loans are extended only by Regional Rural Banks (RRBs)

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Answer: B
Explanation:
● The Government of India has been promoting organic farming in the country through a dedicated scheme namely Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY) since 2015-16. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● The scheme stresses on end to end support to organic farmers i.e from production to certification and marketing. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
● Under PKVY, farmers are provided financial assistance of Rs 50,000 per hectare/3 years.
● The scheme promotes the Participatory Guarantee System (PGS) for India (PGS-India) form of organic certification that is built on mutual trust, locally relevant and mandates the involvement of producers and consumers in the process of certification. PGS–India operates outside the framework of Third Party Certification. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
○ The National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) ensures that products grown without chemical fertilizers and pesticides can be certified and recognized not only in the domestic market but also for export, particularly to the EU and Switzerland.
○ The NPOP has been officially acknowledged by international bodies, thereby enhancing the acceptance of Indian organic products globally.
Funding Pattern:
● Funding pattern under the scheme is in the ratio of 60:40 by the Central and State Governments respectively.
● In case of North Eastern and Himalayan States, Central Assistance is provided in the ratio of 90:10 (Centre: State) and for Union Territories, the assistance is 100%.

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2. With reference to Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY), consider the following statements.
1) PKVY aims at promoting organic farming in the country.
2) The scheme focuses on end to end support to organic farmers.
3) The scheme promotes the National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) form of organic certification.

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Answer: D
Explanation
About the Mission
● Launched in 2020, Mission Karmayogi is a nationwide programme to lay the foundation for capacity building of civil servants. Hence, answer is option D.
● Officially called the "National Programme for Civil Services Capacity Building (NPCSCB)", the mission plans to transform human resource management in the country.
● Mission Karmayogi aims to prepare the Indian civil servants for the future by making them more creative, constructive, imaginative, innovative, proactive, professional, progressive, energetic, enabling, transparent and technology-enabled.
● The fundamental focus of the reform is the creation of a ‘citizen centric civil service’ capable of creating and delivering services conducive to economic growth and public welfare.
● It shifts the focus from “Rule based training to Role based training”. Greater thrust has been laid on behavioral change.
● NPCSCB will be governed by the Prime Minister’s Human Resource Council, which will also include state Chief Ministers, Union Cabinet ministers and experts. This council will approve and review civil service capacity building programmes.
iGOTKarmayogi
● The Mission Karmayogi programme is delivered by the digital platform called iGOTKarmayogi.
● The platform enables officials to explore, acquire and certify their competencies that are critical to discharging their duties.

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1. Mission Karmayogi is a/an

389

Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

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Officer's Daily Motivation

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30 Oct, 11:37

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Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

30 Oct, 10:27

Answer: D
Explanation
Justice Puttaswamy Vs Union of India case - Right to Privacy was recognised a fundamental right
National Legal Services Authority Vs Union of India case - Recognised transgenders are equally entitled to the rights in the constitution
Lily Thomas Vs Union of India case - Automatic disqualification of MPs/MLAs in case of conviction with sentence greater than 2 years.

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Officers IAS Academy - Study Group

30 Oct, 09:28

5. Consider the following landmark judgements

1. Justice Puttaswamy Vs Union of India case - Recognised that transgenders are equally entitled to the rights in the constitution
2. Lily Thomas Vs Union of India case - Right to Privacy was recognised a fundamental right
3. National Legal Services Authority Vs Union of India case - Automatic disqualification of MPs/MLAs in case of conviction with sentence greater than 2 years

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