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بعد شتريدون

12-All the following are decreased in elderly except one:
A-MAC. B-Total body water. C-Circulation level of drugs binding proteins. D-Adipose to lean muscle ratio. E-Muscle blood flow.
13-Risk factors for postoperative pneumonia in elderly include (all true except one): A-history of stroke. B-Weight loss of less than 10% in previous 6 months. C-underlying lung disease. D-long-term steroid use. E-inability to carry out the activities of daily living.
14-anesthetic plan for elderly patient (all true except one):
A-anesthetic technique is based on patient choice and anesthesiologist experiencing. B-analgesia may be challenging due to pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamics changes. C-MAC for inhalational agents is increases with age, about 4% per decade after 40 years of age. D-Risk of post operative delirium. E-prolong the action of some relaxants.
15-All the following are risk factors for delirium postoperatively in elderly except one:
A-Visual impairment. B-Underlying dementia. C-Alcohol abuse. D-Elevated hemoglobin level. E-Advance age.
16-What happens to the volume of distribution of lipophilic drugs in geriatric patients?
A-It decreases. B-It increases. C-It remains the same. D-It varies depending on the drug. E-All the above.
17-All the following can complicate pain assessment in geriatric patient except one:
A-Dementia. B-Delirium. C-problems with hearing. D-Problems with vision. E-Weight of the patient.
18-Treatment of post operative delirium in geriatric (all true except one):
A-Start with treating underlying cause. B-Diazepam has no role in treatment. C-Oral haloperidol for acute control is the preferred treatment. D-Droperidol is used with good result. E-Chlorpromazine is used with good result.
19-Poor glucose control in elderly patient prepared for surgery (blood sugar higher than 200 mg/dL) is associated with risk of:
A-aspiration. B-Poor wound healing. C-Cardiac and cerebral events. D-Autonomic dysfunction. E-all the above.
20-All the following are positive effects of ketamine on respiratory system except one:
A-Reduction in bronchial smooth muscle tone. B-Maintain patent airway. C-Less respiratory depression. d-Anti-tussive. E-Preserved laryngeal reflexes.
21-All the following methods used to decrease the effect of anesthesia on respiratory system except one:
A-Oxygen can be continued into the postoperative period in patients at risk of hypoxia. B-Atropine and glycopyrrolate given before induction reduce the quantity of saliva in the airway. C-Head down position before induction helps to reduce the fall in the FRC. D-Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) helps to maintain alveolar patency and prevent hypoxia. E-In obese patients, extubating on to a CPAP mask may help prevent airway collapse and atelectasis.
22-Negative effects of Isoflurane on respiratory system (all true except one):
A-Increased secretions. B-Reduced minute ventilation. C-Sweet odor. D-Reduced response to hypoxia. E-Reduced response to hypercarbia.
23-All the following anesthetic drugs cause a dose-dependent reduction in minute ventilation except:
A-ketamin. B-propofol. C-thiopental. D-isoflurane. E-etomidate.
24-Which induction agent causes respiratory depression and increased bronchospasm?
A-propofol. B-ketamin. C-thiopental. D-midazolam. E-none of the above

25-Which level of tidal volume lead to ARDS in mechanically ventilated patient:
A-More than 8ml/kg. B-6-8ml/kg. C-less than 6ml/kg. D-More than 12ml/kg. E-Less than 10ml/g.
26-Pneumothorax (all true except one):
A-Occurs when air is trapped between two layers of plural layers of lung with loss of negative pressure. B-Caused by low inspiratory pressure. C-More likely in stiff non-compliant lungs. D-May be self-resolved. E-Can be drained by chest tube in severe cases.

1-Blood volume of pregnant women (all true except one):
a-increase progressively starting at 6-8 weeks. b-increased by 1-1.5 liters at time of delivery. C- greater increase in red blood cell mass compared to plasma volume. D-Increased blood volume meets the mother and fetus’s metabolic demands. E-Increased blood volume to tolerate blood loss during delivery.
2-Cardiac output of pregnancy (all true except one):
a- Cardiac output means the amount of blood pumped by the heart in one minute. B-will increase up to 40% at term. C-Most of the increase occurs in the 1st and 2nd trimesters except during labor when reach the peak. D-will return to normal 2 weeks after delivery. E-can increase after 28 weeks of pregnancy due to mechanical changes.
3-Blood pressure during pregnancy (which one is true):
a-normally increase from pre-pregnancy levels. B-An increase in blood pressure occurs by about 8 weeks of gestation. C-By end of pregnancy, the diastolic blood pressure and mean arterial pressure reach their lowest point. D-The overall decrease in diastolic blood pressure and mean arterial pressure is 5-10 mmHg. E-A decrease in blood pressure occurs by about 28 weeks of gestation.
4-An increased capacity of the venous system during pregnancy lead to (all true except one):
a-reduces blood flow. B-Increases the absorption of intramuscular medications. C-delaying the absorption of subcutaneous drugs. D-increases the risk of vascular damage and bleeding during neuraxial blockade. E-reduces the required number of local anesthetics by 30%.
5-Anesthetic considerations due to respiratory changes during pregnancy (all true except one):
a-Be very gentle during laryngoscopy. B-should be pre-oxygenated with 100% O2 before induction. C-larger endotracheal tube may be required for intubation due to swollen tissue. D-Hypoxia occurs due to increased oxygen consumption and decreased FRC. E-Ensure the patient is positioned optimally for laryngoscopy.
6-Regarding anesthesia for pregnant lady (all true except one):
a-Pregnant lady should be considered to have “full stomachs”, regardless of fasting. B-Reduces the dose of inhaled anesthetics by up to 40%. C-Cricoid pressure should not be released until it is confirmed that the endotracheal tube has been placed in the trachea. D-Do not routinely administer positive pressure ventilation, with a mask, before intubation. E-non-particulate antacid and Metoclopramide given before anesthesia to decrease lower esophageal sphincter tone.
7-Cardiac output in the pediatric patient is dependent on:
a-Heart rate. B-respiratory rate. C-blood pressure. D-mean arterial pressure. E-none of the above.
8-Which one is true regarding the anatomical differences in the pediatric airway compared to an adult?
a-Larger tongue and higher larynx. B-smaller head and longer neck. C-longer trachea and smaller epiglottis. D-larger neck and U-shaped epiglottis . E-smaller tongue and low larynx.
9-The duration of action of nondepolarizing muscle relaxant may be prolonged in infant due to:
A-Immature neuromuscular junction. B-Immature renal and hepatic system. C-Immature BBB. D-Higher metabolic rate. E-Low metabolic rate.
10-Renal system in pediatric (all true except one):
A-Decreased GFR at birth. B-Decreased sodium excretion at birth. C-Increased concentrating ability at birth. D-GFR reaches adult level after one-year. E-ECF volume in infant is twice that of an adult.
11-Temperature regulation in infant and neonate (all true except one):
A-Neonates and infants can rapidly lose heat even in warm environment. B-They are at greater risk for hypothermia due to low metabolic rate. C-Infants less than 3 months do not shiver to generate heat. D-Monitoring the patients’ temperature before, during and after anesthesia. E-Steps to minimize heat loss include a warm operating room or warm blanket.

27-The adult trachea bifurcates into right and left bronchi at:
A-Second thoracic spine. B-Third thoracic spine. C-Fourth thoracic spine. D-Fifth thoracic spine. E-Six thoracic spine.
28-What is the best method for verifying tube placement?
A-Auscultation of the stomach. B-Esophageal detector device. C-Rising or stable O2 saturation. D-Movement of the chest with respiration. E-Waveform EtCO2 with numeric reading.
29-Regarding airway assessment for difficult intubation (Which one is true):
A-Class I and II difficult to intubate. B-Thyromental distance more than 4.5cm. C-Mallampati Class III The only hard palate is visible. D-For mallampati score patient in sitting position. E-Normal Interincisor gab: >6 cm.
30-Unanticipated difficult intubation (which one is true):
A-Allow up to 2 intubation attempts if SPO2 permit. B-Attempts 4 LMA insertion. C-Maximize laryngeal view by extension of the neck. D-Maximize laryngeal view by head flexion. E-Consider long or straight blade.

طلاب كوز الأجهزة أختياري.

المرحلة الرابعة
تقنيات اجهزة التخدير
المحاضرة النظري 7 د. جلال علوان

السلام عليكم أعزائي الطلاب..

نظراً لموعد صورتنا المُقرر يوم الأثنين المصادف 25\11 تم تأجيل أمتحانيّ التخدير وأجهزة التخدير للأسبوع البعدة..

مع تمنيات القسم المُترأس بالدكتور مصطفى عدنان والمُقرر د.حسين البزاز والكادر التدريسي كافة لنا بالتوفيق وقضاءُ وقتاً مُمتعاً .

مني لكم أطيب التمنيات لهذا اليوم وأعدكم سيكون يوماً مُميزاً بتواجدكم وتواجدُ من نحب .

صيغة الأسئلة هيَ MCQ

أعزائي يوم غد المحاضرات لمدة ساعة .

التخدير على ساعة لكل كروب وكل كروب بوقتة .

وأجهزة التخدير كذلك على ساعة وكل كروب بوقتة .

ولتنسون كويز الأجهزة باجر بنهاية المحاضرة يكون .

هاي حلول المحاضرة الثالثة السبايرومتري .